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CUET 2022 Chemistry Question Paper with Answers & Solutions

50 questions with answer key & explanations

Q1.
Among the following statements, choose the correct statements. A. In Ionic solid, ions are the constituent particles. B. Ionic solids are soft. C. Ionic solid are electrical insulators in the solid state. D. Ionic solid conduct electricity in molten state. E. Ionic solid have low melting and boiling points. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A, C & D only
B. A, D & E only
C. A, B & C only
D. A, C & E only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Ionic solids have ions as constituent particles (A correct). They are hard and brittle, not soft (B wrong). They are electrical insulators in the solid state (C correct) but conduct in the molten/aqueous state because ions become mobile (D correct). They have high melting and boiling points due to strong electrostatic forces (E wrong). So correct: A, C and D.

Q2.
Atoms of element B form hcp lattice and those of the element A occupy 2/3 rd of tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the compound formed by the elements A and B?
A. $\ce{A3B4}$
B. $\ce{A4B3}$
C. $\ce{A2B3}$
D. $\ce{A3B2}$
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

In hcp lattice of B, number of B atoms = N, number of tetrahedral voids = 2N. A occupies 2/3 of tetrahedral voids = (2/3)(2N) = 4N/3. Ratio A:B = 4N/3 : N = 4:3, so formula is $\ce{A4B3}$.

Q3.
Consider the 1M aqueous solution of the following compounds and arrange them in the increasing order of elevation in the boiling points. A. $\ce{C6H12O6}$ B. $\ce{NaCl}$ C. $\ce{MgCl2}$ D. $\ce{AlCl3}$ E. $\ce{Al2(SO4)3}$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. B < C < D < E < A
B. A < E < D < C < B
C. A < B < C < D < E
D. E < D < C < B < A
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Elevation in boiling point is a colligative property proportional to van't Hoff factor i. Glucose i=1; NaCl i=2; MgCl2 i=3; AlCl3 i=4; Al2(SO4)3 i=5. Increasing order: A(1) < B(2) < C(3) < D(4) < E(5).

Q4.
Calculate the molarity of a solution containing 5g of NaOH in 450 mL solution
A. $0.278 \times 10^{-3}$ M
B. $0.278$ M
C. $2.78 \times 10^{-3}$ M
D. $2.78$ M
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Moles of NaOH = 5/40 = 0.125 mol. Volume = 450 mL = 0.45 L. Molarity = 0.125/0.45 = 0.278 M.

Q5.
Among the following statements related to ionic conductance, choose the correct statements. A. Ionic conductance depends on the nature of electrolyte B. Ionic conductance is due to the movements of electrons C. Ionic conductance is also called electronic conductance D. Ionic conductance depends on temperature E. Ionic conductance also depends on the nature of solvent. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A, B and C only
B. B, C and D only
C. B, C and E only
D. A, D and E only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Ionic (electrolytic) conductance depends on nature of electrolyte (A), temperature (D) and nature of solvent (E). It is due to movement of ions, not electrons (B wrong), and is called electrolytic, not electronic, conductance (C wrong). Correct: A, D and E.

Q6.
$\Lambda^\circ_m$ for NaCl, HCl and NaOAc are 126.4, 425.9 and 91.0 S cm$^2$ mol$^{-1}$ respectively. Calculate $\Lambda^\circ$ for HOAc
A. 390.5 S cm$^2$ mol$^{-1}$
B. 643.3 S cm$^2$ mol$^{-1}$
C. 461.3 S cm$^2$ mol$^{-1}$
D. 208.5 S cm$^2$ mol$^{-1}$
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

By Kohlrausch's law: $\Lambda^\circ_{HOAc} = \Lambda^\circ_{HCl} + \Lambda^\circ_{NaOAc} - \Lambda^\circ_{NaCl} = 425.9 + 91.0 - 126.4 = 390.5$ S cm$^2$ mol$^{-1}$.

Q7.
How much charge is required for the reduction of 1 mol of $\ce{MnO4^-}$ to $\ce{Mn^2+}$ ?
A. 1 F
B. 5 F
C. 3 F
D. 6 F
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Mn in $\ce{MnO4^-}$ is +7, reduced to +2 in $\ce{Mn^2+}$, a gain of 5 electrons. For 1 mol, 5 mol electrons = 5 F.

Q8.
The products formed at cathode and anode by electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution respectively are
A. $\ce{Na}$, $\ce{Cl2}$
B. $\ce{Na}$, $\ce{O2}$
C. $\ce{H2}$, $\ce{Cl2}$
D. $\ce{H2}$, $\ce{O2}$
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

In electrolysis of aqueous NaCl (brine), $\ce{H2}$ is liberated at cathode (water reduced preferentially over Na+) and $\ce{Cl2}$ at anode (due to overvoltage of O2). Products: H2 and Cl2.

Q9.
The artificial sweetner used only for cold food is
A. Alitame
B. Sucralose
C. Aspartame
D. Saccharin
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Aspartame is unstable at cooking/baking temperatures (decomposes on heating), so its use is limited to cold foods and soft drinks.

Q10.
Rate constant 'k' for a certain reaction is $k = 2.3 \times 10^{-5}$ L mol$^{-1}$ s$^{-1}$. Order of the reaction is:
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Units of rate constant for order n are mol$^{1-n}$ L$^{n-1}$ s$^{-1}$. Units L mol$^{-1}$ s$^{-1}$ = mol$^{-1}$ L s$^{-1}$ correspond to second order (n=2).

Q11.
The decomposition of $\ce{NH3}$ on platinum surface is zero order reaction. If $k = 2.5 \times 10^{-4}$ mol L$^{-1}$ s$^{-1}$ the rate of production of $\ce{H2}$ is
A. $2.5 \times 10^{-4}$ mol L$^{-1}$ s$^{-1}$
B. $7.5 \times 10^{-4}$ mol L$^{-1}$ s$^{-1}$
C. $5.0 \times 10^{-4}$ mol L$^{-1}$ s$^{-1}$
D. $10.0 \times 10^{-4}$ mol L$^{-1}$ s$^{-1}$
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

$\ce{2NH3 -> N2 + 3H2}$. For zero order, rate = k = $2.5\times10^{-4}$. Rate of decomposition of NH3 = $-\frac{1}{2}\frac{d[NH3]}{dt}$... rate of reaction = k. Rate of production of H2 = 3 × rate = $3 \times 2.5\times10^{-4} = 7.5\times10^{-4}$ mol L$^{-1}$ s$^{-1}$.

Q12.
The molecularity of the following elementary reaction is $\ce{NH4NO2 -> N2 + 2H2O}$
A. Zero
B. One
C. Two
D. Three
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Molecularity = number of reacting species in an elementary reaction. Only one molecule of $\ce{NH4NO2}$ reacts, so molecularity = one (unimolecular).

Q13.
Which of the following is not the characteristic of physisorption?
A. It arises because of vander Waals forces.
B. It is not specific in nature.
C. Enthalpy of adsorption is high.
D. It results into multi molecular layers on adsorbent surface under high pressure.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Physisorption has low enthalpy of adsorption (20-40 kJ/mol) because it involves weak van der Waals forces. High enthalpy of adsorption is a characteristic of chemisorption. So C is NOT a characteristic of physisorption.

Q14.
Which one of the following is an emulsion?
A. Smoke
B. Hair cream
C. Paint
D. Cheese
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

An emulsion is a colloid of liquid dispersed in liquid. Hair cream (oil-in-water/water-in-oil) is an emulsion. Smoke is solid-in-gas (aerosol), paint is sol (solid-in-liquid), cheese is gel (liquid-in-solid).

Q15.
Caprolactam is the starting material for
A. Nylon 6,6
B. Nylon 6
C. Nylon 2,6
D. Dacron
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Caprolactam undergoes ring-opening polymerisation to give Nylon-6.

Q16.
Which of the following is a positively charged Sol?
A. Starch
B. Gum
C. Gold Sol
D. Blood
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Blood is a positively charged sol (negatively charged sols include starch, gum, gold sol, As2S3). Among the options, blood carries positive charge.

Q17.
Match list I with list II. List I: A. Siderite, B. Malachite, C. Calamine, D. Bauxite. List II: I. Aluminium, II. Iron, III. Copper, IV. Zinc. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
B. A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
C. A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
D. A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Siderite ($\ce{FeCO3}$) = Iron (II); Malachite ($\ce{CuCO3.Cu(OH)2}$) = Copper (III); Calamine ($\ce{ZnCO3}$) = Zinc (IV); Bauxite ($\ce{Al2O3.2H2O}$) = Aluminium (I). So A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I.

Q18.
The metal refined by Van Arkel method is
A. Ni
B. Zr
C. Cu
D. Sn
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The Van Arkel method (vapour phase refining via iodide) is used for refining Zirconium (Zr) and Titanium (Ti).

Q19.
Arrange the following hydrides in increasing order of thermal stability. A. $\ce{H2O}$ B. $\ce{H2Se}$ C. $\ce{H2Po}$ D. $\ce{H2Te}$ E. $\ce{H2S}$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A < B < C < D < E
B. C < D < B < E < A
C. C < D < E < B < A
D. A < E < B < D < C
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Thermal stability of group 16 hydrides decreases down the group: $\ce{H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te > H2Po}$. Increasing order: $\ce{H2Po (C) < H2Te (D) < H2Se (B) < H2S (E) < H2O (A)}$, i.e. C < D < B < E < A.

Q20.
Match list I with list II. List I: A. Ammonia, B. Chlorine, C. Sulphuric Acid, D. Nitric Acid. List II: I. Ostwald's process, II. Contact process, III. Deacon process, IV. Haber's process. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
B. A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
C. A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
D. A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Ammonia = Haber's process (IV); Chlorine = Deacon process (III); Sulphuric acid = Contact process (II); Nitric acid = Ostwald's process (I). So A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I.

Q21.
The formula of a noble gas species which is isostructural with $\ce{BrO3^-}$ is :
A. $\ce{XeOF4}$
B. $\ce{XeF2}$
C. $\ce{XeO3}$
D. $\ce{XeF4}$
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

$\ce{BrO3^-}$ has 3 bond pairs and 1 lone pair on central atom, giving pyramidal (sp3, trigonal pyramidal) shape. $\ce{XeO3}$ also has 3 bond pairs and 1 lone pair, pyramidal shape. So XeO3 is isostructural with BrO3^-.

Q22.
Match list I with list II. List I (Transition Metals): A. Ti, B. V, C. Mn, D. Cu. List II (Maximum Oxidation State): I. 7, II. 4, III. 5, IV. 2. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV
B. A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
C. A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
D. A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Max oxidation states: Ti = +4 (II); V = +5 (III); Mn = +7 (I); Cu = +2 (IV). So A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV.

Q23.
The metal from first transition series having positive $E^\circ_{M^{2+}/M}$ value :
A. Cr
B. V
C. Cu
D. Ni
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Copper has a positive standard reduction potential $E^\circ_{Cu^{2+}/Cu} = +0.34$ V, which is unique in the first transition series (all others are negative). This is because of its high enthalpy of atomisation and low hydration enthalpy.

Q24.
Magnetic moment of a divalent ion in aqueous solution of an element with atomic number 25 is :
A. 2.84 BM
B. 3.87 BM
C. 4.90 BM
D. 5.92 BM
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Atomic number 25 is Mn. $\ce{Mn^2+}$ has configuration $3d^5$, so 5 unpaired electrons. $\mu = \sqrt{n(n+2)} = \sqrt{5(7)} = \sqrt{35} = 5.92$ BM.

Q25.
Which one of the following transition metal ion is colourless?
A. $\ce{Sc^3+}$
B. $\ce{V^2+}$
C. $\ce{Mn^2+}$
D. $\ce{Co^3+}$
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

$\ce{Sc^3+}$ has $3d^0$ configuration (no d electrons), so no d-d transitions are possible and it is colourless. The others have partially filled d orbitals and are coloured.

Q26.
Among the following statements, choose the correct statements. A. $\ce{S_N2}$ reaction proceeds with stereo chemical inversion. B. The process of conversion of Racemic mixture into enantiomer is known as Racemisation. C. A mixture containing 2 enantiomers in equal proportions is known as Racemic mixture. D. The stereoisomers related to each other as superimposable mirror image are called enantiomers. E. The objects which are non-superimposable on their mirror image are said to be chiral and this properly is known as chirality. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A, B and C only
B. A, C and E only
C. B, C and E only
D. C, D and E only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

A correct: SN2 proceeds with inversion (Walden inversion). B wrong: racemisation is conversion of enantiomer into racemic mixture (the reverse). C correct: racemic mixture has equal proportions of two enantiomers. D wrong: enantiomers are NON-superimposable mirror images. E correct: chirality is the property of non-superimposable mirror images. Correct: A, C and E.

Q27.
IUPAC name of neopentyl chloride is
A. 1-Chloro – 2, 2 – dimethylpropane
B. 2 - Chloro – 1, 2 – dimethylpropane
C. 2 - Chloro – 2 –Methylbutane
D. 2 - Chloro – 2 – Methylpentane
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Neopentyl chloride is $\ce{(CH3)3C-CH2Cl}$, i.e. 2,2-dimethyl-1-chloropropane = 1-Chloro-2,2-dimethylpropane.

Q28.
The structure of major monohalo product in the following reaction is ______ (4-hydroxymethylphenol type compound, i.e. benzene ring bearing CH2OH and HO substituents, reacting with HCl, heat)
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. Benzene ring with Cl directly attached (chlorobenzene type structure)
B. Benzene ring with Cl and CH2OH on adjacent positions and HO on ring
C. Benzene ring with CH2Cl and OH substituents
D. Benzene ring with CH2OH and Cl substituents
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The benzylic -CH2OH (a primary benzylic alcohol) reacts with HCl to substitute -OH with -Cl forming -CH2Cl. The phenolic -OH on the aromatic ring does not react with HCl (aryl C-OH is not replaced). So the product retains the phenolic OH and converts CH2OH to CH2Cl, matching option C (CH2Cl and OH).

Q29.
Among the following statements, choose the correct statements. A. Boiling point of alcohols increases with increase in the number of carbon atoms. B. In alcohols, boiling points increases with increase of branching in carbon chain. C. Boiling points of alcohols are lesser in comparison to haloalkanes of comparable molecular mass. D. Boiling points of alcohols are higher in comparison to hydrocarbons of comparable molecular mass. E. The high boiling points of alcohols are mainly due to the presence of intramolecular hydrogen bonding. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A, D and E only
B. A, B and C only
C. B, C and D only
D. C, D and E only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

A correct: BP increases with carbon number. B wrong: BP decreases with branching (less surface area). C wrong: alcohols have HIGHER BP than haloalkanes of comparable mass due to H-bonding. D correct: alcohols have higher BP than hydrocarbons. E: the high BP is due to (inter)molecular hydrogen bonding; the statement says intramolecular which is loose but in CUET context taken as correct. Best answer A, D and E.

Q30.
Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their acid strength : A. Propan-1-ol B. 3-nitrophenol C. 3,5-dinitrophenol D. Phenol E. 4-Methylphenol. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A < B < C < D < E
B. C < B < D < E < A
C. A < B < C < D < E
D. A < E < D < B < C
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Acid strength: alcohols are weakest, then phenols with electron-donating groups, then phenol, then phenols with electron-withdrawing (nitro) groups (more nitro = stronger). Order: Propanol(A) < 4-methylphenol(E) < phenol(D) < 3-nitrophenol(B) < 3,5-dinitrophenol(C). So A < E < D < B < C.

Q31.
The structure of the product of the following reaction is : (cyclohexanone ring with a -CH2-C(=O)-O-CH3 side chain treated with $\ce{NaBH4}$)
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. Cyclohexanone (C=O retained) with -CH2-CH(OH)-O-CH3 side chain
B. Cyclohexanol (ring C=O reduced to OH) with -CH2-C(=O)-O-CH3 ester retained
C. Cyclohexanone (C=O retained) with -CH2-C(=O)-H aldehyde side chain
D. Cyclohexanol (ring C=O reduced to OH) with -CH2-C(=O)-H aldehyde side chain
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

$\ce{NaBH4}$ selectively reduces aldehydes and ketones but does NOT reduce esters (or carboxylic acids). So the ring ketone (C=O) is reduced to a secondary alcohol (OH), while the ester group -CH2-C(=O)-O-CH3 remains intact. This matches option B.

Q32.
The product of the following reaction is : (phenetole, $\ce{C6H5-OC2H5}$ + HBr)
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. Phenol + $\ce{C2H5Br}$
B. Bromobenzene + $\ce{C2H5OH}$
C. ortho-bromophenetole (benzene with OC2H5 and Br para/opposite)
D. ortho-bromophenetole (benzene with OC2H5 at top and Br at lower position)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Aryl alkyl ethers cleave with HBr/HI to give a phenol and an alkyl halide. The C(alkyl)-O bond breaks: $\ce{C6H5-O-C2H5 + HBr -> C6H5-OH + C2H5Br}$. Phenol + ethyl bromide form. The aryl-O bond is not cleaved. Matches option A.

Q33.
Amino acid in zwitter ionic form show
A. Acid Behaviour
B. Basic Behaviour
C. Amphoteric Behaviour
D. Neutral Behaviour
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

A zwitterion has both a positive ($\ce{-NH3^+}$) and a negative ($\ce{-COO^-}$) charge, so it can react with both acids and bases, showing amphoteric behaviour.

Q34.
Match list I with list II. List I (Nomenclature): 1. Acetophenone, 2. Benzaldehyde, 3. Benzoic acid, 4. Benzophenone. List II (Structure): I. C6H5-CHO, II. C6H5-CO-CH3, III. C6H5-CO-C6H5, IV. C6H5-COOH. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. A –III, B – I, C- II, D – IV
B. A - II, B – I, C -IV, D-III
C. A –I, B -II, C - III, D- IV
D. A - IV, B -III, C - II, D-I
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Acetophenone (1) = C6H5COCH3 = structure II; Benzaldehyde (2) = C6H5CHO = structure I; Benzoic acid (3) = C6H5COOH = structure IV; Benzophenone (4) = C6H5COC6H5 = structure III. So 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III, matching option B (A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III).

Q35.
Which simple chemical test is used to distinguish between ethanal & propanal?
A. Iodoform test
B. Tollen's test
C. Fehling's test
D. Lucas test
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Ethanal ($\ce{CH3CHO}$) has the CH3-CO group and gives a positive iodoform test (yellow precipitate), while propanal ($\ce{CH3CH2CHO}$) does not. Both give positive Tollen's and Fehling's tests, so those cannot distinguish them. Iodoform test distinguishes them.

Q36.
Which of the following compound would undergo Aldol condensation?
A. Methanal
B. Benzaldehyde
C. 2,2-Dimethylbutanal
D. Phenylacetaldehyde
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Aldol condensation requires at least one alpha-hydrogen. Methanal (HCHO) has none, benzaldehyde has none, 2,2-dimethylbutanal has no alpha-H (the alpha carbon is quaternary). Phenylacetaldehyde ($\ce{C6H5CH2CHO}$) has alpha-hydrogens on the CH2, so it undergoes aldol condensation.

Q37.
Among the following statements choose the correct statements. A. Analgesics reduce or abolish pain without causing impairment of consciousness, mental confusion. B. Tranquilizers are neurological inactive drugs. C. Morphine is the example of non-narcotic analgesics. D. Disinfectants are applied to inanimate objects whereas antiseptics are applied to the living tissues. E. Same substance can act as an antiseptic as well as disinfectant by varying the concentration. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A, D and E only
B. B, C and D only
C. A, C and E only
D. B, C and E only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

A correct: analgesics relieve pain without impairing consciousness. B wrong: tranquilizers are neurologically active drugs affecting the central nervous system. C wrong: morphine is a narcotic (opioid) analgesic, not non-narcotic. D correct: disinfectants for inanimate objects, antiseptics for living tissue. E correct: e.g. phenol acts as antiseptic at 0.2% and disinfectant at 1%. Correct: A, D and E.

Q38.
Out of the following artificial sweetning agents, which one has highest sweetness value in comparison to cane sugar?
A. Saccharin
B. Alitame
C. Sucralose
D. Aspartame
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Relative sweetness (vs sucrose=1): Saccharin ~550, Aspartame ~100, Sucralose ~600, Alitame ~2000. Alitame is the sweetest, about 2000 times cane sugar.

Q39.
Among the following polymers, which one is the copolymer?
A. Polypropene
B. Polystyrene
C. Polyvinyl chloride
D. Glyptal
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

A copolymer is made from two or more different monomers. Glyptal is formed from ethylene glycol and phthalic acid (two monomers), so it is a copolymer. Polypropene, polystyrene and PVC are homopolymers (single monomer).

Q40.
Among the following, which one is a disaccharide?
A. Glucose
B. Glycogen
C. Maltose
D. Starch
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Maltose (glucose + glucose) is a disaccharide. Glucose is a monosaccharide; glycogen and starch are polysaccharides.

The reaction of amines with mineral acids to form ammonium salt shows that these are basic in nature. Amines have an unshared pair of electron on nitrogen atom due to which they behave as lewis base. Basicity of amines is related to their structure. Basic character of an amine depends upon the ease of formation of cation by accepting a proton from the acid. The more stable the cation is relative to the amine, more basic is the amine.
Q41.
Structure of ammonium salt when ethylamine reacts with one mole of HCl?:
A. $\ce{C2H5-NH3^+ Cl^-}$
B. $\ce{(C2H5)2-NH2^+ Cl^-}$
C. $\ce{(C2H5)3-NH^+ Cl^-}$
D. $\ce{(C2H5)4-N^+ Cl^-}$
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Ethylamine $\ce{C2H5NH2}$ (a primary amine) accepts one proton from HCl to form the ethylammonium chloride salt $\ce{C2H5-NH3^+ Cl^-}$.

Q42.
Among the following amines, which one is most basic (in aqueous solution)?
A. $\ce{NH3}$
B. $\ce{C2H5NH2}$
C. $\ce{(C2H5)2NH}$
D. $\ce{(C2H5)3N}$
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

In aqueous solution, basicity of ethylamines follows: secondary > primary > tertiary > ammonia (due to combined inductive, steric and solvation effects). So $\ce{(C2H5)2NH}$ (diethylamine, secondary) is the most basic.

Q43.
The correct order of basicity of amines in gas phase
A. 1° < 3° < 2°
B. 3° < 1° < 2°
C. 2° < 3° < 1°
D. 1° < 2° < 3°
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

In the gas phase (no solvation effect), only the inductive effect operates, so basicity increases with number of alkyl groups: tertiary > secondary > primary. Increasing order: 1° < 2° < 3°.

Q44.
Among the following, which one has the highest pK$_b$ value?
A. $\ce{C2H5NH2}$
B. $\ce{C6H5NHCH3}$
C. $\ce{(C2H5)2NH}$
D. $\ce{C6H5NH2}$
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Highest pKb = weakest base. Aniline ($\ce{C6H5NH2}$) is the weakest base because the lone pair on nitrogen is delocalised into the aromatic ring. So aniline has the highest pKb.

Q45.
Among the following, which one has the highest K$_b$ value?
A. $\ce{C2H5NH2}$
B. $\ce{C6H5N(CH3)2}$
C. $\ce{(C2H5)2NH}$
D. $\ce{CH3NH2}$
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Highest Kb = strongest base. Diethylamine $\ce{(C2H5)2NH}$ (secondary aliphatic amine) is the strongest base among the options; aromatic amines (B) are weak. So $\ce{(C2H5)2NH}$ has the highest Kb.

According to the valence bond theory, the metal atom or ion under the influence of ligands can use its (n-1)d, ns, np, nd orbitals for hybridisation to yield a set of equivalent orbitals of definite geometry. These hybridised orbitals are allowed to overlap with ligand orbitals that can donate electron pairs for bonding. It is usually possible to predict the geometry of a complex from the knowledge of its magnetic behaviour on the basis of the valence bond theory. Consider the formation of $\ce{[Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2}$ and answer the following question:
Q46.
The IUPAC name of the above coordination entity is
A. Chloridopentaamminecobaltate (II) chloride
B. Chloridopentaamminecobaltate (II) dichloride
C. Pentaamminechloridocobaltate (III) chloride
D. Pentaamminechloridocobalt (III) dichloride
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Correct answer: C

In $\ce{[Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2}$, ligands named alphabetically: ammine (5) before chlorido = pentaamminechlorido. Co oxidation state: complex ion charge is +2 (two Cl- counter ions), 5 NH3 neutral + 1 Cl(-1), so Co = +3. The complex cation is named with metal name + (III). Counter ion = chloride. So Pentaamminechloridocobalt(III) chloride. Note: the suffix should be 'cobalt' (cation) not 'cobaltate', but among given options C is the closest/intended answer (correct oxidation state III, correct ligand order, single chloride). Selecting C.

Q47.
The spin only magnetic moment of the complex $\ce{[Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2}$ in BM is
A. 1.7
B. 0.0
C. 3.8
D. 4.9
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Correct answer: B

Co is +3, $3d^6$. With NH3 (strong field) ligands, the complex is low spin: all 6 d electrons pair up in t2g (d2sp3), giving 0 unpaired electrons. $\mu = \sqrt{0(0+2)} = 0.0$ BM (diamagnetic).

Q48.
The hybridization of cobalt in the above coordination entity is
A. $sp^3d^2$
B. $d^2sp^3$
C. $sp^3d$
D. $dsp^3$
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Correct answer: B

Co(III), $3d^6$ low spin with strong field NH3 ligands, uses inner d orbitals: $d^2sp^3$ hybridisation, giving octahedral geometry.

Q49.
The coordination number of cobalt in the above coordination entity is
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
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Correct answer: D

In $\ce{[Co(NH3)5Cl]^2+}$, Co is bonded to 5 NH3 ligands and 1 Cl ligand = 6 coordinating atoms. Coordination number = 6.

Q50.
The primary valence of Co in above coordination entity is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
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Correct answer: C

Primary valence corresponds to the oxidation state of the metal. In $\ce{[Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2}$, Co is in +3 oxidation state, so primary valence = 3.

Original question paper source: National Testing Agency (NTA), CUET (UG) 2022. Reproduced for educational use. Answers & explanations by UniDrill.