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CUET 2022 Economics Question Paper with Answers & Solutions

50 questions with answer key & explanations

Q1.
Economic variables such as 'National Income' and 'profits' can be classified under which of the following heads ?
A. Stock concept
B. Flow concept
C. Depreciation
D. Final goods
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

National Income and profits are measured over a period of time, so they are flow variables (flow concept), unlike stock variables (e.g., wealth, capital) measured at a point of time.

Q2.
Elasticity of demand is constant and equal to 1 at every point on the demand curve. The shape of such a demand curve would be :
A. Horizontal straight line
B. Vertical straight line
C. Downward sloping curve
D. Rectangular hyperbola
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

A demand curve with unitary elasticity (e=1) at every point is a rectangular hyperbola, where price multiplied by quantity (total expenditure) remains constant.

Q3.
Name the architect of Indian Planning :
A. William Digby
B. P.C. Mahalanobis
C. V.K.R.V. Rao
D. Dadabhai Naoroji
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

P.C. Mahalanobis is regarded as the architect of Indian Planning; the Second Five Year Plan was based on his model.

Q4.
Which of the following is not included in Human Development Indicators ?
A. Women Empowerment
B. Infant Mortality rate
C. Access to basic sanitation
D. Gross National Income per capita
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

HDI dimensions are health (life expectancy/IMR), education, and standard of living (GNI per capita). Women empowerment is not a component of HDI (it relates to GII/GEM, separate indices).

Q5.
Which of the following statements are incorrect ? (A) Circular flow of income does not take place in a closed economy. (B) Real flow consists of flow of factor services from households to firms. (C) In a two-sector economy, total production is always equal to total consumption. (D) Money flow consists of flow of factor payments from households to firms. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A) and (B) only
B. (A), (B) and (C) only
C. (A) and (D) only
D. (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Statement (A) is incorrect: circular flow does take place in a closed economy. Statement (D) is incorrect: money flow consists of factor payments from firms to households (not households to firms). (B) and (C) are correct. So incorrect statements are (A) and (D).

Q6.
Identify the correct statements regarding money supply (A) Money supply is a stock concept. (B) Money supply is a flow concept. (C) Money supply is the currency (cash and coins) with the public and demand deposit in banks. (D) Money supply is the currency held with banks. (E) Money supply is the concept of real flow. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A) and (C)
B. (A) and (D)
C. (B) and (E)
D. (C) and (D)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Money supply is a stock concept (measured at a point of time) - (A) correct. It is the currency with the public plus demand deposits in banks (M1) - (C) correct. Currency held with banks is excluded. So (A) and (C).

Q7.
Given the following set of data calculate equilibrium income. $C = 100 + 0.8\,Y$. Investment $= ₹\,260$ Cr.
A. ₹ 1,500 Cr
B. ₹ 2,300 Cr
C. ₹ 2,200 Cr
D. ₹ 1,800 Cr
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

At equilibrium $Y = C + I = 100 + 0.8Y + 260$. So $Y - 0.8Y = 360$, $0.2Y = 360$, $Y = 1800$ Cr.

Q8.
Suppose a country only produces bread. In the year 2000 it had produced 100 units of bread, price was ₹ 10 per bread. In 2001, the same country produced 110 units of bread at price was ₹ 15 per bread. In 2001, the nominal and real GDP are : (base year is 2000)
A. ₹ 1,550 and ₹ 1,000
B. ₹ 1,400 and ₹ 2,000
C. ₹ 1,650 and ₹ 1,100
D. ₹ 1,500 and ₹ 1,000
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Nominal GDP 2001 = current quantity × current price = $110 \times 15 = 1650$. Real GDP 2001 = current quantity × base year price = $110 \times 10 = 1100$.

Q9.
Identify the quantitative tools used by RBI to control money supply. (A) Moral Suasion (B) Bank Rate (C) Cash Reserve Ratio (D) Open Market Operations (E) Margin requirement Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A) only
B. (B), (C) and (D) only
C. (B) and (C) only
D. (A) (D) and (E) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Quantitative (general) tools are Bank Rate, CRR, SLR, Repo/Reverse Repo and Open Market Operations. Moral suasion and margin requirement are qualitative tools. So (B), (C) and (D).

Q10.
Match List - I with List - II. List - I (Event): (A) Planning Commission (B) First Phase of Green Revolution (C) Karve Committee (D) First Industrial Policy Resolution. List - II (Year): (I) 1948 (II) 1955 (III) 1950 (IV) Mid 1960 - 1970. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
B. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
C. (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
D. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Planning Commission set up in 1950 (III); First Phase of Green Revolution mid-1960s to 1970 (IV); Karve Committee 1955 (II); First Industrial Policy Resolution 1948 (I). So A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I.

Q11.
'₹ 48,000 cr is allotted for PM Awas Yojana in this years budget'. Identify the government objective fulfilled from the statement above.
A. Economic stability
B. Redistribution of income
C. Reallocation of resources
D. Reducing regional disparities
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Allocating budget funds for housing of the poor (PM Awas Yojana) reflects the budgetary objective of redistribution of income, improving welfare of the weaker sections.

Q12.
If the reserve ratio is 10% and the initial deposit with the commercial banks are ₹ 450 cr, the total money creation by the banking system will be :
A. ₹ 4,000 Cr
B. ₹ 5,000 Cr
C. ₹ 3,500 Cr
D. ₹ 4,500 Cr
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Money multiplier = $1/r = 1/0.10 = 10$. Total deposits created = initial deposit × multiplier = $450 \times 10 = 4500$ Cr.

Q13.
Which of the following is considered as an intermediate good ?
A. Mobile purchased by a student
B. Car purchased by a household
C. Seeds and fertilizers purchased by a farmer
D. Vegetables purchased by households
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Seeds and fertilizers purchased by a farmer are used up in the process of production within the same year, so they are intermediate goods. The others are final goods for consumption.

Q14.
Match List - I with List - II. List - I (Financial Terms): (A) Monetary Base (B) Assets (C) Liabilities (D) Credit control. List - II (Examples): (I) Loans extended by banks (II) Reserve Bank of India (III) Currency (IV) Deposits accepted by the banks. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
B. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
C. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
D. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Monetary base/high-powered money is Currency (III); Assets of a bank = Loans extended by banks (I); Liabilities of a bank = Deposits accepted (IV); Credit control is a function of the Reserve Bank of India (II). So A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II.

Q15.
Which one of the following is the apex body to coordinate the activities of all institutions involved in the rural financing system ?
A. NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development)
B. NSSO (National Sample Survey Organisation)
C. SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India)
D. RBI (Reserve Bank of India)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

NABARD is the apex body that coordinates the activities of all institutions in the rural financing system (NCERT, Indian Economic Development).

Q16.
Infrastructure is divided into two categories :
A. Primary and Secondary
B. Commercial and Social
C. Service and Industry
D. Social and Economic
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Infrastructure is classified into economic infrastructure (energy, transport, communication) and social infrastructure (education, health, sanitation).

Q17.
What would be the value of investment multiplier if MPC = MPS ?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

If MPC = MPS and MPC + MPS = 1, then MPC = MPS = 0.5. Multiplier $k = 1/(1-MPC) = 1/(1-0.5) = 1/0.5 = 2$.

Q18.
Which of the following is a function of RBI ?
A. Accepting deposits from general public
B. Giving loans to general public
C. Banker to the government
D. Credit creation
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The RBI (central bank) acts as banker to the government. Accepting public deposits, lending to the public and credit creation are functions of commercial banks, not the RBI.

Q19.
If MPC = 0.75, autonomous consumption = 100 crore, then find the level of consumption at income level = 8,000 crore :
A. 7,000 crores
B. 6,100 crores
C. 6,900 crores
D. 7,100 crores
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

$C = \bar{C} + bY = 100 + 0.75 \times 8000 = 100 + 6000 = 6100$ crores.

Q20.
Re-arrange the following in chronological order of their occurrence. (A) Establishment of People's Republic of China. (B) Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution (C) First Five Year Plan of Pakistan. (D) First Five Year Plan of India. (E) Economic Reforms of Pakistan. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
B. (A), (C), (D), (B), (E)
C. (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)
D. (A), (D), (C), (B), (E)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

People's Republic of China established 1949 (A); First Five Year Plan of India 1951 (D); First Five Year Plan of Pakistan 1956 (C); Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution 1966-76 (B); Economic Reforms of Pakistan 1988 (E). Order: A, D, C, B, E.

Q21.
Which of the following is not a function of the Central Bank ?
A. Bank rate
B. Open market operation
C. Lender of last resort
D. Deficit financing
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Bank rate, open market operations and lender of last resort are central bank functions. Deficit financing is a fiscal activity of the government (financing the budget deficit), not a central bank function.

Q22.
If tea and coffee can be used in place of one another, then which of the following statements hold true ? (A) Increase in price of tea leads to decrease in demand for coffee. (B) Increase in price of tea leads to increase in demand for coffee. (C) Tea and coffee are substitute goods. (D) Decrease in price of tea leads to increase in price of coffee. (E) Tea and Coffee are complimentary goods. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A) and (E) only
B. (B) and (E) only
C. (C) and (D) only
D. (B) and (C) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Tea and coffee used in place of each other are substitutes (C correct). For substitutes, an increase in the price of tea raises demand for coffee (B correct). So (B) and (C).

Q23.
Suppose the producers plans to add ₹ 100 cr worth of goods to her stock by the end of the year. However, due to an unforeseen upsurge of demand for her goods in the market, she had to sell goods worth ₹ 30 cr from her existing stock. Now, determine Ex-ante Investment and Ex-post Investment from the above information.
A. 100 Cr, 100 Cr
B. 100 Cr, 70 Cr
C. 70 Cr, 70 Cr
D. 70 Cr, 100 Cr
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Ex-ante (planned) investment = planned addition to stock = 100 Cr. Ex-post (actual) investment = planned addition minus unplanned sale from existing stock = 100 - 30 = 70 Cr.

Q24.
What is the value of education cess levied on Union taxes by the Government of India ?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 12%
D. 2%
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

The basic education cess levied on Union taxes is 2% (with an additional 1% secondary and higher education cess). The education cess as such is 2%.

Q25.
Some of the factors responsible for land degradation in India an : (A) Organic farming (B) Forest fire and overgrazing (C) Planned irrigation system (D) Excession use of fertilizers and pesticides (E) Shifting cultivation Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (B), (D), (E) only
B. (B), (D) only
C. (A), (B) only
D. (B), (E) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Forest fire and overgrazing (B), excessive use of fertilizers and pesticides (D), and shifting cultivation (E) cause land degradation. Organic farming and planned irrigation do not degrade land. So (B), (D), (E).

Q26.
Which of the following is not a reason for excess demand ?
A. Reduction in Taxes
B. Fall in propensity to consume
C. Increase in investments
D. Increase in government spending
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Excess demand arises from rising aggregate demand: tax cuts, higher investment, and higher government spending all raise demand. A fall in propensity to consume reduces aggregate demand, so it does not cause excess demand.

Q27.
Which among the following is not a part of Qualitative measure of Monetary Policy of RBI ?
A. Margin Requirement
B. Moral Suasion
C. Reverse Repo Rate
D. Selective Credit Control
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Margin requirement, moral suasion and selective credit control are qualitative tools. Reverse repo rate is a quantitative (general) instrument of monetary policy.

Q28.
Match List - I with List - II. List - I (Programmes): (A) National Social Assistance Programme (B) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (C) Prime Minister's Rozgar Yojana (D) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana. List - II (Objective): (I) Promoting savings (II) Pension to the elderly (III) Self-employment programme (IV) Wage employment programme. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
B. (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
C. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
D. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

NSAP provides pension to the elderly (II); MGNREGA is a wage employment programme (IV); PM Rozgar Yojana is a self-employment programme (III); PM Jan Dhan Yojana promotes savings/financial inclusion (I). So A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I.

Q29.
In China, Commune system is related to the __________ sector.
A. Informal
B. Industry
C. Service
D. Agriculture
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

The Commune system in China (introduced under the Great Leap Forward) involved collective cultivation of land - it relates to the agriculture sector.

Q30.
Identify the statement that stands true during deficient demand : (A) Actual output falls short of potential output (B) Potential output falls short of actual output (C) Actual demand is less than expected demand (D) Expected demand is less than actual demand Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (D) only
B. (A) and (C) only
C. (A) and (B) only
D. (B) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Deficient demand means aggregate demand is below the full-employment level: actual output falls short of potential output (A) and actual demand is less than expected/required demand (C). So (A) and (C).

Q31.
Suppose you are a member of the 'Advisory Committee to the Finance Minister of India'. The finance minister is concerned about the rising Revenue Deficit in the budget. Which measure would you suggest to control the rising Revenue deficit of the government ?
A. To increase grants given to the State Government
B. To increase the subsidy
C. To increase taxation
D. To increase government administrative expenses
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Revenue deficit = revenue expenditure − revenue receipts. Increasing taxation raises revenue receipts and thus reduces the revenue deficit. The other options increase revenue expenditure and worsen the deficit.

Q32.
Five Year Plans in India were guided by which the following goals : (A) Modernisation (B) Equity (C) Subsidies (D) Self - Reliance (E) Growth Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A), (B), (C), (E) only
B. (A), (C), (D), (E) only
C. (B), (C), (D), (E) only
D. (A), (B), (D), (E) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

The four goals of India's Five Year Plans are growth, modernisation, self-reliance and equity. Subsidies is not a plan goal. So (A), (B), (D), (E).

Q33.
Identify the casual worker from amongst the following alternatives :
A. Santu, who works on the farm of Sohan as he doesn't own land of his own.
B. Raghav, who owns a restaurant in a city.
C. Angad who is a lawyer running, his own firm.
D. Radha, who is a nurse working in a hospital.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

A casual worker is engaged in others' farms/enterprises and gets a daily/periodic wage without job security. Santu, working on Sohan's farm without owning land, is a casual wage labourer. The others are self-employed or regular salaried workers.

Q34.
Raising the value of country's currency under fixed exchange rate system is :
A. Devaluation
B. Appreciation
C. Revaluation
D. Depreciation
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Under a fixed exchange rate system, a deliberate increase in the value of the domestic currency by the government/central bank is called revaluation. (Appreciation is the market-driven counterpart under a flexible system.)

Q35.
Match List - I with List - II. List - I (Demographic feature): (A) Very High fertility rate (B) One Child Norm (C) High density of population (D) Mixed economy. List - II (Country): (I) India and Pakistan (II) Pakistan (III) China (IV) India. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
B. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
C. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
D. (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Very high fertility rate - Pakistan (II); One Child Norm - China (III); High density of population - India (IV); Mixed economy - India and Pakistan (I). So A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I.

Q36.
When consumption function starts from $y$ axis, it indicates that ?
A. Consumption is zero when income is zero
B. Consumption is positive when income is zero
C. Saving is negative when income is positive
D. Saving is positive when income is zero
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

A consumption function with a positive intercept on the Y-axis means there is autonomous consumption: consumption is positive even when income is zero.

Q37.
Owing to the current political instability across many countries, the Indian rupee has sharply lost its value in terms of US dollars. The impact of this would be : (A) A rise in imports from USA (B) A fall in imports from USA (C) A rise in exports to USA (D) A fall in exports to USA Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A) and (B) only
B. (B) and (D) only
C. (C) and (D) only
D. (B) and (C) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Depreciation of the rupee makes imports costlier (imports fall, B) and exports cheaper/more competitive (exports rise, C). So (B) and (C).

Q38.
Which of the following is included in the estimation of National Income ?
A. Sugar purchased by a restaurant
B. Expenditure incurred by a household on goods and services
C. Contribution towards social security scheme by an employee
D. Steel purchased by a car manufacturing company
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Household final consumption expenditure on goods and services is part of national income (by expenditure method). Sugar bought by a restaurant and steel bought by a car maker are intermediate goods; employee's social security contribution is a transfer, all excluded.

Q39.
The Central problems of an economy that relate to the question 'what to produce and in what quantities, does not deal in :
A. Technique of production
B. Distribution of resources between different goods produced
C. Quantities of different of goods
D. Combination of goods to be produced in the economy
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

'What to produce and in what quantities' deals with the allocation of resources among goods, quantities and the combination of goods produced. The technique/method of production is the separate problem of 'how to produce', so it is not dealt with here.

Q40.
Suppose in an economy there are only two firms A and B. Calculate Gross Domestic Product at Market Price from the given table.
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. ₹ 270 Cr
B. ₹ 140 Cr
C. ₹ 330 Cr
D. ₹ 170 Cr
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

GDPmp = Value of Output − Intermediate Consumption, where Output = Sales + Change in stock. Firm A: (50+20)−0 = 70. Firm B: (200−30)−100 = 70. Total GDPmp = 70 + 70 = 140 Cr.

Read the following Case Study based on Sustainable energy sources and answer question based on it. India has been giving a push for alternate fuels such as Ethanol and more recently, Methanol to improve its energy security. India meets 85% of its crude oil requirement, 53% of its natural gas requirement, and 25% of its coal requirement through imports. Ethanol is primarily used for blending with gasoline citing twin benefits : substitution of gasoline to arrest rising crude imports and using a relatively cleaner fuel than gasoline. The Government of India regulates the prices of ethanol derived from various sources and procures it through the Oil Marketing Companies at pre-determined prices. However, ethanol primarily derived from molasses and sugarcane juice can ignite a fuel vs food security debate; Methanol, on the other hand, can be derived from different sources such as natural gas, coal, naphtha, biomass etc. Natural gas is the most widely used feedstock to produce methanol across the world accounting for almost 70% of the global production. India has given a strong push for methanol from coal since coal is abundantly available in India whereas natural gas is a scarce resource. India is on the cusp of a major transformational change as it transitions towards a low carbon economy. The energy policies of the country and those on the anvil demonstrate and focus on the country's transition toward cleaner fuels in a sustainable manner. And coal gasification of domestically available coal to produce methanol (deployed with Carbon Capture & Storage-CCS) presents an opportunity to accelerate this transition in an energy secure manner.
Q41.
'Alternate fuel' refers to :
A. fossil fuel
B. conventional energy sources
C. non-conventional energy sources
D. non-biodegradable energy sources
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Alternate fuels such as ethanol and methanol are non-conventional (renewable/cleaner) energy sources, used as alternatives to conventional fossil fuels like crude oil.

Q42.
New energy policies of the country aim at promoting :
A. fossil fuel sources
B. conventional energy sources
C. crude oil imports
D. sustainable use of cleaner fuels
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

The passage states the energy policies focus on the country's transition toward cleaner fuels in a sustainable manner - hence promoting sustainable use of cleaner fuels.

Q43.
India meets its crude oil requirements through domestic sources of :
A. 10 percent
B. 75 percent
C. 15 percent
D. 85 percent
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The passage says India meets 85% of its crude oil requirement through imports, so it meets 100% − 85% = 15% through domestic sources.

Q44.
Methanol is preferred as an alternate fuel over ethanol because it : (A) hampers energy security of the country (B) will not create fuel vs food security debate (C) polluting energy source (D) coal is abundantly available (E) relatively cleaner fuel than gasoline Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A) and (E) only
B. (B) and (D) only
C. (A), (C) and (D) only
D. (B), (D) and (E) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Methanol is preferred because it can be derived from sources other than food crops (no fuel vs food debate, B) and because coal, a feedstock for methanol, is abundantly available in India (D). So (B) and (D).

Q45.
Match List - I with List - II. List - I (Item): (A) Low carbon economy (B) Oil Marketing companies (C) Methanol (D) Ethanol. List - II (Relation with): (I) Derived from biomass, naphtha etc. (II) Derived from sugarcane juice and molasses (III) Procure ethanol for Govt. (IV) Less emission of carbon dioxide. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
B. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
C. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
D. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Low carbon economy - less emission of CO2 (IV); Oil Marketing companies - procure ethanol for Govt. (III); Methanol - derived from biomass, naphtha etc. (I); Ethanol - derived from sugarcane juice and molasses (II). So A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II.

Budget 2022 which seeks to lay the blueprint for the next 25 years for growth for India has been widely recognized by the business community as a growth and infrastructure-focused budget that will put the country on the right trajectory. In terms of performance, the government has done well in collecting tax revenues, keeping spending tight, and is now taking steps towards long-term fiscal stability. The key areas of attention are future income and employment-generating capital expenditure. 317,643 crore will be allocated to grants-in-aid, including MNREGA. As far as expenditure is concerned, the government proposes to spend ₹ 39,44,909 crore in 2022-23, which is 4.6% higher than the updated estimate of 2021-22. The receipts (excluding borrowings) in 2022-23 are estimated to be ₹ 22,83,713 crore, an increase of 4.8% over the revised estimate of 2021-22. The expectation from tax collections is higher than last year, which is expected to come in from direct taxes, both on personal and corporate income. The FM has estimated GDP growth of 9.27% which is among the highest in the world's large economies. The fiscal deficit in 2022-23 is targeted at 6.4% of GDP, which is lower than last year. And Interest expenditure at ₹ 9,40,651 crore is estimated to be 43% of revenue receipts. The budget has not relied on EBR (Extra Budgetary Resources) or loans from the National Small Savings Fund. As far as ministry allocation is concerned the highest percentage-wise increase is seen for the Ministry of Communications, Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, and Ministry of Jal Shakti.
Q46.
For the business community, which of the following relates to the Budget 2022 ?
A. Economic Stability
B. Focus on growth and infrastructure
C. Reduction of inequalities
D. Encouragement to save more
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The passage states the budget has been recognized by the business community as a growth and infrastructure-focused budget.

Q47.
Identify direct taxes from the following : (A) Goods and Services Tax (B) Corporate Tax (C) Capital Gains Tax (D) Value Added Tax Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A) and (B) only
B. (A), (B) and (C) only
C. (B) and (C) only
D. (B) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Direct taxes are levied directly on income/wealth: Corporate Tax (B) and Capital Gains Tax (C). GST and VAT are indirect taxes. So (B) and (C).

Q48.
Given the information in the passage, find out the fiscal deficit :
A. ₹ 39,44,909
B. ₹ 22,83,713
C. ₹ 18,84,311
D. ₹ 16,61,196
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Fiscal deficit = Total expenditure − Total receipts (excluding borrowings) = 39,44,909 − 22,83,713 = 16,61,196 crore.

Q49.
Match List - I with List - II. List - I (Budgetary Terms): (A) Interest Payments (B) Grants-in-aid received (C) Borrowings and other liabilities (D) Construction of flyover. List - II (Accounting Head): (I) Revenue Receipts (II) Capital Expenditure (III) Revenue Expenditure (IV) Capital Receipts. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
B. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
C. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
D. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Interest Payments - Revenue Expenditure (III); Grants-in-aid received - Revenue Receipts (I); Borrowings and other liabilities - Capital Receipts (IV); Construction of flyover - Capital Expenditure (II). So A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II.

Q50.
Which one of the following statement is true ?
A. The lowest percentage-wise increase in allocation is seen for the Ministry of Jal Shakti
B. The highest percentage-wise increase in allocation is seen for the Ministry of Communications
C. The budget has relied heavily on loans from the National Small Savings Fund
D. The government has not done well in collection of tax revenues
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The passage states the highest percentage-wise increase in allocation is seen for the Ministry of Communications, Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, and Ministry of Jal Shakti. Hence statement (B) is true; the others contradict the passage.

Original question paper source: National Testing Agency (NTA), CUET (UG) 2022. Reproduced for educational use. Answers & explanations by UniDrill.