Colour is all around us in many forms. It is one of the most important aspects of all textile materials - be it for apparel, household, commercial or institutional use. The identity of the product is most often attributed to colour. Everyone responds to colour and has definite preferences. Colour reflects the season, events and the spirit of people. The choice is affected by culture, tradition, climate, season, occasion or purely personal reason. Colour is an important part of fashion. Designers carefully choose fabric colours to make a definite statement. Colour can be defined as reflection of light striking the surface of an object. It is the visual sensation resulting from reflection of visible light rays that strike the retina and stimulate cells in the nerves of the eye. The nerves send a message to the brain, which produces a sensation of a specific kind, and we see colour. The colour that is observed by the brain is dependent on the particular wavelength or combination of wavelengths of the light source. To see colour on any material, light must be reflected from the object to be seen by the eye. When all light rays are reflected, the object appears white; when none are reflected it is black. The intensity is the purity of colour. The colours, which are displayed in a rainbow are represented by the acronym VIBGYOR. We see a rainbow, because white light is split into different wavelengths.
Q1.
Light rays when they enter our eyes, strike the :
A. Retina ✓
B. Choroid
C. Iris
D. Rod cells
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A
The passage states light rays strike the retina and stimulate cells in the nerves of the eye.
Q2.
Choice of colour is not affected by :
A. Culture
B. Occasion
C. Personal preference
D. Monetary value ✓
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D
The passage lists culture, tradition, climate, season, occasion or personal reason as factors. Monetary value is not mentioned.
Q3.
Brightness or dullness of colour is referred to as :
A. Intensity
B. Hue
C. Value ✓
D. Rhythm
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
Value refers to lightness or darkness (brightness/dullness) of a colour. Hue is the name of the colour; intensity is purity/saturation.
Q4.
A colour can be seen by the eye when light is :
A. absorbed from object
B. reflected from object ✓
C. passed through primary colours
D. rejected by intermediates
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
The passage states: 'To see colour on any material, light must be reflected from the object to be seen by the eye.'
Q5.
Which of the following colours is not a part of VIBGYOR ?
A. Green
B. Red
C. Yellow
D. Rust ✓
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D
VIBGYOR = Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, Red. Rust is not part of it.
Training is the systematic development of attitudes, knowledge, skills required by a person to perform a given task or job adequately. Development is the 'growth of an individual in terms of ability, understanding and awareness. It consists of guiding and directing member of the work force to enhance their knowledge base, apply this knowledge and translate them into skills in order to achieve the goals of the organization and its people. Career counselling and guidance, career planning management development are also key responsibility of Human Resource Development (HRD)
Q6.
Human Resource Development (HRD) Department also has the key responsibility of :
A. medical counselling and guidance
B. tourism counselling and guidance
C. career counselling and guidance ✓
D. genetic counselling and guidance
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
The passage states career counselling and guidance is a key responsibility of HRD.
Q7.
Training is NOT the systematic development of :
A. attitudes
B. knowledge
C. skills
D. emotions ✓
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D
The passage defines training as systematic development of attitudes, knowledge and skills. Emotions are not mentioned.
Q8.
Match List - I with List - II.
List - I: (A) Necessity of Training and Development (B) Common Techniques of Training and Development (C) Training is systematic development of (D) Important function of HR professional
List - II: (I) retain right employee for right job (II) attitudes, knowledge and skills (III) raise standards of performance (IV) group discussions
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Necessity of Training - raise standards of performance (III); Common Techniques - group discussions (IV); Training is systematic development of - attitudes, knowledge and skills (II); Important function of HR professional - retain right employee for right job (I). Gives (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-II, (D)-I.
Q9.
Common techniques of training and development include :
A. Shaming
B. Case studies ✓
C. Punishment
D. Incentives
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
Case studies, lectures, group discussions, role plays are recognised training and development techniques. Shaming and punishment are not techniques.
Q10.
Career preparation to be a HR professional requires :
(A) Having a family (B) Clarity of goals and work ethics (C) Efficiency in time management (D) Vision and goals of department team, organization, etc (E) Dietary plans for daily living
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A. (A), (B), (E) only
B. (B), (C), (D) only ✓
C. (B), (C), (E) only
D. (A), (B), (D) only
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
Career preparation as HR professional requires clarity of goals and work ethics (B), efficiency in time management (C), and vision/goals of department/organization (D). Having a family and dietary plans are irrelevant.
Q11.
Which of the following provides family based care to the children to recover from traumatic experiences ?
A. ICDS
B. Observation homes
C. Children's homes
D. SOS children's villages ✓
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D
SOS Children's Villages provide a family-based environment (a mother, siblings, home) to orphaned and abandoned children to help them recover.
Q12.
One of the following initiatives has provision for eight years education for all children, including those with disabilities :
A. Serva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) ✓
B. Non-Government Organisation (NGO)
C. Individualised Education Programme (IEP)
D. Rehabilitation Council of India (RCI)
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A
Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) aims to provide free and compulsory elementary (8 years) education to all children aged 6-14, including those with disabilities.
Q13.
The Central Agency which is constituted by Government of India to set up guidelines for adoption to safeguard the welfare and rights of children is :
A. SOS children's villages
B. Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS)
C. Central Adoption Resource Agency (CARA) ✓
D. National Service Volunteer Scheme (NSVS)
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
CARA (Central Adoption Resource Authority/Agency) is the statutory body under Ministry of Women and Child Development that regulates and monitors adoption in India.
Q14.
Difficulties in movements due to damage of bones, joints, muscles is termed as :
A. Locomotor disability ✓
B. Autism
C. Cereberal Palsy
D. Visual impairment
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A
Locomotor disability refers to a disability of the bones, joints or muscles leading to substantial restriction of movement of the limbs.
Q15.
The vision of providing family based care to orphans and abandoned children is met by ________.
A. Adoption policy
B. S.O.S village ✓
C. Special homes
D. Children home
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
SOS Villages provide family-based care (a mother and a family home) to orphaned and abandoned children.
Q16.
Self employment opportunity available to a person after studying Human Development is :
A. Working as a teacher in a school
B. Opening a day care centre ✓
C. Working in a creche
D. Counsellor in hospital
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
Opening a day care centre is a self-employment (entrepreneurial) option, whereas the others are salaried jobs working for an employer.
Q17.
In India, after a massive earthquake, organization that will provide immediate assistance with emergency relief to children is :
A. National Service Scheme (NSS) ✓
B. Children's home
C. Observation home
D. SOS crildren's village
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A
National Service Scheme (NSS) volunteers provide immediate emergency relief and assistance during disasters such as earthquakes.
Q18.
Identify the standarization mark in the picture given below :
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. Silkmark
B. Hallmark
C. Wool mark
D. Eco mark ✓
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D
The mark shown (BIS triangular emblem with the tagline 'मानक: पथप्रदर्शक') is the Bureau of Indian Standards standardization mark; among the given options it corresponds to the Eco mark, which is the only standardization/certification mark listed (Silkmark, Hallmark and Wool mark are product-quality marks for silk, gold and wool respectively).
Q19.
Which of the following skill is not required to work in the field of care and maintenance of fabric ?
A. Knowledge of material
B. knowledge of chemicals and their effect on fabrics
C. knowledge of human resources and ability to work with resources ✓
D. knowledge of machinery and its functioning
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
Care and maintenance of fabric requires knowledge of material, chemicals and machinery. Knowledge of human resources is a managerial/HR skill, not required for fabric care.
Q20.
The sector which lays more stress on aesthetics and finistring of clothes is :
A. Hotel ✓
B. Hostel
C. Hospitals
D. Schools
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A
The hotel/hospitality sector places great emphasis on aesthetics and finishing (grooming, uniforms, presentation) of clothes.
Q21.
Involvement of operator in washing machine is not required in ________.
A. Manually operated machine
B. Semi - automatic machine
C. Fully - automatic machine ✓
D. Human operating machine
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
In a fully-automatic washing machine, the entire wash cycle runs without operator involvement; manual and semi-automatic machines require human intervention.
Q22.
The professionals who interpret their research and creative ideas into apparel and then offers new style to the public are called :
A. Designers ✓
B. Producers
C. Merchandisers
D. Manufacturers
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A
Designers translate research and creative ideas into apparel and offer new styles to the public.
Q23.
Which of the following method of washing is used for front-loading machines ?
A. Agitation
B. Tumbling ✓
C. Pulsation
D. Spinning
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
Front-loading washing machines clean clothes by the tumbling action (clothes lifted and dropped by the rotating drum). Agitation and pulsation are used in top-loading machines.
Q24.
When lines meet to form an enclosed area, it is called ________.
A. Shape ✓
B. Space
C. Pattern
D. Curved line
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A
When lines meet to enclose an area, they create a shape (a two-dimensional enclosed space).
Q25.
Market that are segmented on the basis of Cities, States and Regions are called ________.
A. Demographic
B. Geographic ✓
C. Psychographic
D. Behavioural
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
Geographic segmentation divides the market on the basis of geographic units such as cities, states, regions and countries.
Q26.
Landscape management outside the hotel is the work responsibility of ________.
A. Guestroom brigade
B. Lost and found section
C. Linen and uniform
D. Horticulture and flower arrangement ✓
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D
The horticulture and flower arrangement section of housekeeping is responsible for landscaping, gardens and flower arrangements outside (and inside) the hotel.
Q27.
The Delhi based consumer organization that brings out publication in interest of consumer is ________.
A. Consumer Education and Research Center (CERC)
B. Voluntary Organization in interest of Consumers Educations (VOICE) ✓
C. Insight
D. Codex India
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
VOICE (Voluntary Organisation in Interest of Consumer Education) is a Delhi-based consumer organisation that brings out the publication 'Consumer Voice'. CERC is based in Ahmedabad.
Q28.
The focal point of any hotel is :
A. Back office
B. Front office ✓
C. Housekeeping
D. Food and Beverage
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
The front office is the focal point and first point of contact for guests in any hotel.
Q29.
The following medium is not an effective development communication tool :
A. Television
B. Radio
C. Internet
D. Debate ✓
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D
Television, radio and internet are mass media/development communication tools. A debate is an interpersonal/group activity, not a mass-communication medium for development communication.
Q30.
The right to have access to products of varying quality and quantities, prices, size and design, at competitive prices and to choose according to one's requirements is referred to as the ________.
A. Right to safety
B. Right to seek redressal
C. Right to choose ✓
D. Right to be informed
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
The Right to Choose ensures access to a variety of products at competitive prices and the freedom to select according to one's requirements.
Q31.
A brief 10 - 60 seconds message broadcasted in between programs, generally in the form of jingles come under ________.
A. EDUSAT
B. PSA ✓
C. RRE
D. SARI
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
PSA (Public Service Announcement) is a brief 10-60 second message broadcast between programmes, often in the form of jingles, for public awareness.
Q32.
Products which are prepared by mixing and processing of individual ingredients to result in relatively shelf stable food products such as bread, biscuits, ice cream, cakes, kulfi are called ________ goods ?
A. Medical
B. Functional
C. Formulated ✓
D. Preserved
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
Formulated foods are prepared by mixing and processing individual ingredients to produce relatively shelf-stable products such as bread, biscuits, cakes and ice cream.
Q33.
To create awareness about the problems of a small village in Northwest Delhi, an experiment, 'Project village Chhatera', was started in 1969. The newspaper which was involved in this project was :
A. Times of India ✓
B. Hindustan Times
C. Dainik Jagran
D. The Hindu
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A
Project Chhatera was a development journalism experiment started in 1969 by The Times of India to highlight problems of Chhatera village in Northwest Delhi.
Q34.
The following pathogen causes food intoxication :
A. Staphylococcus aureus ✓
B. Salmonella
C. Rotavirus
D. Norovirus
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A
Food intoxication is caused by toxins produced by bacteria such as Staphylococcus aureus (and Clostridium botulinum). Salmonella causes food infection; rotavirus and norovirus are viral infections.
Q35.
Poshan Abhiyaan is implemented by which department of Government of India ?
A. Ministry of Women and Child Development ✓
B. Ministry of Labour
C. Ministry of Home Affairs
D. Ministry of Defence
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A
POSHAN Abhiyaan (National Nutrition Mission) is implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Q36.
Stages of apparel production are listed herewith. Arrange them in the correct sequence.
(A) Inspection of raw material (B) Procurement of raw material (C) Assembly of the products (D) Laying and cutting of fabric (E) Finishing and Packaging
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A. (B), (D), (A), (E), (C)
B. (B), (A), (D), (C), (E) ✓
C. (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
D. (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
Apparel production sequence: Procurement of raw material (B) -> Inspection of raw material (A) -> Laying and cutting of fabric (D) -> Assembly of products (C) -> Finishing and Packaging (E). This is option (B), (A), (D), (C), (E).
Q37.
Arrange the following steps of nutritional care during illness in correct order
(A) Diagnosis of nutritional problem (B) Evaluating nutritional care outcome (C) Assessing nutritional status (D) Nutritional intervention and change (if required) (E) Planning and prioritising nutritional intervention to meet needs
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A. (C), (A), (E), (B), (D) ✓
B. (C), (B), (A), (E), (D)
C. (D), (B), (A), (E), (C)
D. (B), (D), (A), (E), (C)
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A
Nutritional care process: Assessing nutritional status (C) -> Diagnosis of nutritional problem (A) -> Planning and prioritising intervention (E) -> Evaluating care outcome (B) -> Nutritional intervention and change if required (D). This matches option (C), (A), (E), (B), (D).
Q38.
Arrange the following steps of fashion cycle in correct sequential order :
(A) Decline in popularity (B) Peak of popularity (C) Introduction of a style (D) Increase in popularity (E) Rejection of style
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A. (C), (B), (D), (A), (E)
B. (C), (A), (D), (B), (E)
C. (C), (D), (B), (A), (E) ✓
D. (C), (A), (B), (E), (D)
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
Fashion cycle: Introduction of a style (C) -> Increase in popularity (D) -> Peak of popularity (B) -> Decline in popularity (A) -> Rejection of style (E). This is option (C), (D), (B), (A), (E).
Q39.
Arrange the list of special education methods in order of their implementation in correct sequence :
(A) IEP (Individualised Education Plan) (B) An assessment of the child's level in different area of development (C) Regular evaluation of IEP (D) Assessment of support services (E) Use of support services
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A), (C), (B), (D), (E)
B. (B), (D), (A), (C), (E) ✓
C. (C), (D), (A), (B), (E)
D. (B), (A), (C), (D), (E)
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
Special education sequence: Assessment of child's level (B) -> Assessment of support services (D) -> IEP preparation (A) -> Regular evaluation of IEP (C) -> Use of support services (E). This matches option (B), (D), (A), (C), (E).
Q40.
Arrange the following functions of Human Resource Management in the proper sequence.
(A) Ensuring fair, safe and equitable work environment (B) Sustaining high - performing employees (C) Recruiting and staffing (D) Ensuring compliance to regulations (E) Training and development of employees
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
B. (D), (B), (E), (C), (A)
C. (C), (E), (D), (A), (B) ✓
D. (E), (D), (C), (B), (A)
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
HRM sequence: Recruiting and staffing (C) -> Training and development (E) -> Ensuring compliance to regulations (D) -> Ensuring fair, safe, equitable work environment (A) -> Sustaining high-performing employees (B). This is option (C), (E), (D), (A), (B).
Q41.
The basic concepts in food processing methods to prevent food spoilage are :
(A) Lowering of temperature during storage (B) Avoid application of heat (C) Reduction of pH (D) Adding adequate amount of water (E) Controlling the availability of oxygen
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (B), (D), (C) only
B. (A), (B), (D) only
C. (A), (C), (E) only ✓
D. (C), (D), (E) only
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
Food spoilage is prevented by lowering temperature during storage (A), reducing pH (acidic environment) (C), and controlling availability of oxygen (E). Applying heat and removing water (not adding water) also help, so (B) and (D) are incorrect.
Q42.
Nutritional care provided by a dietician, during illness is an orgasized group of activities and consists of :
(A) Manufacturing of nutritional diets and supplements (B) Planning nutritional interventions (C) Diagnosis of nutritional problems (D) Evaluating nutritional care outcomes (E) Assessing nutritional status
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (B), (D), (E) only ✓
B. (A), (C), (E) only
C. (A), (B), (C) only
D. (A), (C), (D) only
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A
Nutritional care by a dietician includes assessing nutritional status (E), planning interventions (B), and evaluating care outcomes (D). Manufacturing of diets/supplements (A) is not a dietician's nutritional care activity. Hence (B), (D), (E) only.
Q43.
Some programmes implemented for elderly in India are :
(A) National Old Age Pension Scheme (NOAPS) (B) Integrated Care Development Services (C) Day Care centers for Alzhimer's (D) National Service Scheme (E) Respite Care Homes and Continuous Care Homes
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (B), (C), (D) only
B. (A), (C), (D) only
C. (B), (D), (E) only
D. (A), (C), (E) only ✓
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D
Programmes for the elderly include National Old Age Pension Scheme (A), Day Care centres for Alzheimer's (C), and Respite Care Homes/Continuous Care Homes (E). Integrated Care Development Services and National Service Scheme are not elderly-specific programmes. Hence (A), (C), (E) only.
Q44.
As per the NCF (2005) publication the guiding principles of ECCE are :
(A) Play as the basis for learning (B) Blend of textual and cultural sources (C) Cooking as the basis of education (D) Only formal education of interactions (E) Health, well being and healthy habits
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (B), (C), (D) only
B. (B), (D), (E) only
C. (A), (B), (E) only ✓
D. (A), (B), (D) only
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
ECCE guiding principles (NCF 2005) include play as the basis for learning (A), blend of textual and cultural sources (B), and health, well-being and healthy habits (E). Cooking as basis and only formal education are incorrect. Hence (A), (B), (E) only.
Q45.
Identify the correct options by which market can be segmented :
(A) Demographic segmentation (B) Geographic segmentation (C) Psychographic segmentation (D) Physiological segmentation (E) Religious segmentation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A), (D), (C) only
B. (A), (B), (C) only ✓
C. (B), (C), (D) only
D. (D), (E), (A) only
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
Market segmentation bases are demographic (A), geographic (B), psychographic (C) and behavioural. Physiological and religious are not standard segmentation bases. Hence (A), (B), (C) only.
Q46.
Match List - I with List - II.
List - I (Fashion Cycle stage): (A) Introduction of a style (B) Peak of popularity (C) Decline in popularity (D) Obsolescence stage
List - II (Characteristics): (I) Beginning of a new cyle (II) Height of popularity (III) Launch of a new style in market (IV) Downfall of style
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Introduction of a style - Launch of a new style in market (III); Peak of popularity - Height of popularity (II); Decline in popularity - Downfall of style (IV); Obsolescence stage - Beginning of a new cycle (I). Gives (A)-III, (B)-II, (C)-IV, (D)-I.
Q47.
Match List - I with List - II.
List - I (Year of Development): (A) 1810 (B) January 2010 (C) 1864 (D) 20th century
List - II (Occurence of Invention): (I) Louis Pasteur's research on spoilage of wine (II) Invention of instant soup mixes and ready to cook items. (III) Canning process by Nicolas Appert (IV) Setting of Mega food processing parks
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
B. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) ✓
C. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
D. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
1810 - Canning process by Nicolas Appert (III); January 2010 - Setting of Mega food processing parks (IV); 1864 - Louis Pasteur's research on spoilage of wine (I); 20th century - Invention of instant soup mixes and ready-to-cook items (II). Gives (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-I, (D)-II.
Q48.
Match List - I with List - II.
List - I (Colour Scheme): (A) Achromatic (B) Complementary (C) Analogous (D) Accented Neutral
List - II (Correct explanation): (I) Colour combination using two or more hues (II) One hue and a neutral (III) Only neutrals (IV) Two hues that lie opposite
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
B. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
C. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) ✓
D. (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
Achromatic - only neutrals (III); Complementary - two hues that lie opposite (IV); Analogous - colour combination using two or more (adjacent) hues (I); Accented Neutral - one hue and a neutral (II). Gives (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-I, (D)-II.
Q49.
Match List - I with List - II.
List - I (Divisions): (A) Merchandising division (B) Finance and control division (C) Operational division (D) Sales and Promotion division
List - II (Activity): (I) Inventory control (II) Fashion coordination (III) Publicity and public relation (IV) Customer service and receiving and making of merchandise
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Merchandising division - Fashion coordination (II); Finance and control division - Inventory control (I); Operational division - Customer service and receiving and making of merchandise (IV); Sales and Promotion division - Publicity and public relation (III). Gives (A)-II, (B)-I, (C)-IV, (D)-III.
Q50.
Match List - I with List - II.
List - I (Terminology): (A) Bowed filling (B) Kink (C) Coarse end and fine end (D) Colour Run
List - II (Correct Description): (I) Warp yarns having a longer diameter/smaller diameter (II) The colour of one area has bled (III) Filling yarns/colour patterns having a curvature (IV) A short length of yarn systematically doubled on itself
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) ✓
B. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
C. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
D. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A
Bowed filling - filling yarns/colour patterns having a curvature (III); Kink - a short length of yarn systematically doubled on itself (IV); Coarse end and fine end - warp yarns having a longer/smaller diameter (I); Colour Run - the colour of one area has bled (II). Gives (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-I, (D)-II.
Original question paper source: National Testing Agency (NTA), CUET (UG) 2022. Reproduced for educational use. Answers & explanations by UniDrill.