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CUET 2022 Psychology Question Paper with Answers & Solutions

50 questions with answer key & explanations

Q1.
According to Freud, which element of personality does not care for moral values, society or other individuals ?
A. Super ego
B. Ego
C. Id
D. Libido
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Freud's id operates on the pleasure principle, seeking immediate gratification without regard for moral values, society, or others. The superego represents morality and the ego mediates reality.

Q2.
Match List - I with List - II. List - I: (A) Self-Efficacy (B) Real Self (C) Self-Report measure (D) Self-Actualisation List - II: (I) Cattell (II) Maslow (III) Bandura (IV) Rogers Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
B. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
C. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
D. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Self-Efficacy is Bandura (III), Real Self is Rogers (IV), Self-Report measure (16PF) is Cattell (I), Self-Actualisation is Maslow (II). This matches option D: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.

Q3.
'Street Smartness' is a part of :
A. Multiple Intelligence
B. Contextual Intelligence
C. Experiential Intelligence
D. Componental Intelligence
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

In Sternberg's triarchic theory, contextual (practical) intelligence is the 'street smartness' that helps a person adapt to and shape their environment to succeed in real-life situations.

Q4.
The important ideas proposed by Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow are : (A) People have a tendency to maximise self concept through self actualisation. (B) There is a collective unconscious consisting of archetypes (C) Behaviour is goal directed and worthwhile people try to express capabilities, potentials and talents to the fullest possible extent. (D) An atmosphere of unconditional positive regard must be created in order to ensure enhancement of one's self concept. (E) Human beings display a wide range of variations in psychological attributes (and it is possible) Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A), (B), (D) only
B. (B), (C), (E) only
C. (A), (D), (E) only
D. (A), (C), (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Rogers and Maslow (humanistic approach) proposed self-actualisation (A), goal-directed expression of potential (C), and unconditional positive regard (D). Collective unconscious/archetypes (B) is Jung; (E) is unrelated. Correct: A, C, D only.

Q5.
The clinical psychologist assessed person B's personality using a test based on less structured stimuli. The test helped to assess his unconscious motives and feelings. Identify the test used by the psychologist.
A. Self report measure
B. Projective Technique
C. Behavioural Analysis
D. Psychometric test
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Projective techniques use unstructured/ambiguous stimuli (e.g., Rorschach, TAT) to reveal unconscious motives and feelings, as the person projects their inner states onto them.

Q6.
In __________ a person defends against anxiety by adopting behaviours opposite to her/his true feelings.
A. Projection
B. Reaction formation
C. Rationalisation
D. Regression
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Reaction formation is the defence mechanism where a person behaves in a way exactly opposite to their true (anxiety-provoking) feelings.

Q7.
__________ has been found extremely useful in carrer guidance, vocational exploration and occupational testing.
A. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
B. Eysenck Personality Questionnaire
C. Sixteen Personality factor Questionnaire
D. Sentence Completion Test
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Cattell's Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF) is widely used in vocational guidance, career counselling and occupational testing.

Q8.
__________ refers to our ability to organise and monitor our own behaviour.
A. Self efficacy
B. Self esteem
C. Self concept
D. Self regulation
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Self-regulation is the ability to organise and monitor one's own behaviour, including resisting temptations and self-control.

Q9.
A child is going through a tough time and is facing problems in school. He decides to discuss the same with the school counseler so that he can vent out his feelings. Identify the type of coping response in this.
A. Avoidance oriented
B. Emotion oriented
C. Task oriented
D. Relaxation
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Venting out feelings (talking about emotions to release them) is an emotion-oriented coping strategy (Endler & Parker), which involves managing the emotional response to stress.

Q10.
Social support in the form of assistance involving material aid such as money or goods, is known as __________ support.
A. Emotional
B. Positive
C. Tangible
D. Informational
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Tangible (instrumental) support involves material aid such as money, goods or services provided to a person under stress.

Q11.
Radhika wants to do everything perfectly. Everytime this expectation leads to disappointment and stress. Thus, the source of her psychological stress is __________.
A. Frustration
B. Conflict
C. Internal Pressure
D. Social Pressure
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Wanting to do everything perfectly is an internal/self-imposed demand. Such perfectionistic expectations from within are a source of internal pressure.

Q12.
Match List - I with List - II. List - I: (A) Emotional effect (B) Physiological effect (C) Cognitive effect (D) Behavioural effect List - II: (I) Increased heart rate, constriction of blood vessels (II) Mood swing, increased psychological tension (III) Disrupted sleep pattern, increased absenteeism (IV) Poor concentration, reduced short term memory capacity Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
B. (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
C. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
D. (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Emotional effect = mood swing/tension (II); Physiological = increased heart rate, blood vessel constriction (I); Cognitive = poor concentration, reduced memory (IV); Behavioural = disrupted sleep, absenteeism (III). Matches C.

Q13.
Once the datesheet was announced, the students started paying attention and preparing for the examination. They made notes, took tests and attended coaching class neglecting their diet and sleep. As the examination approached students felt draining of bodily resources and falling sick indicates __________ stage of General Adaptations syndrome.
A. Exhaustion stage
B. Alarm reaction stage
C. Resistance stage
D. Adjourning stage
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

In Selye's GAS, the exhaustion stage is when prolonged stress drains bodily resources, leading to physical breakdown and falling sick. 'Draining of bodily resources and falling sick' is the hallmark of exhaustion.

Q14.
In which of the following disorders, children may fuss, scream, throw severe tantrums, or make suicidal gestures ?
A. Obsessive compulsive and related disorder
B. Dissociative disorder
C. Separation anxiety disorder
D. Phobia
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

In separation anxiety disorder, when separated from attachment figures children may fuss, scream, throw severe tantrums or make suicidal gestures, as described in NCERT.

Q15.
Dominating and bullying other without provocation is __________ type of aggression.
A. Verbal aggression
B. Proactive aggression
C. Physical aggression
D. Hostile aggression
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Proactive aggression is unprovoked, deliberate aggression aimed at dominating or bullying others (instrumental/cold aggression), as opposed to reactive aggression which is a response to provocation.

Q16.
Match List - I with List - II. List - I: (A) Alogia (B) Delusion (C) Avolition (D) Hallucination List - II: (I) Lack of motivation to do the task (II) Perception without stimuli (III) False Belief (IV) Poverty of speech Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
B. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
C. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
D. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Alogia = poverty of speech (IV); Delusion = false belief (III); Avolition = lack of motivation (I); Hallucination = perception without stimuli (II). Matches B.

Q17.
Bulimia Nervosa is a/an __________.
A. Depressive disorder
B. Eating disorder
C. Conduct disorder
D. Anxiety disorder
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterised by binge eating followed by compensatory behaviours such as vomiting or purging.

Q18.
Manjeet is inattentive, hyperactive and mostly impulsive. He is most likely to be diagnosed with __________.
A. Specific Learning Disorder
B. Intellectual Deficiency
C. Autism Spectrum disorder
D. Attention deficit hyper activity disorder
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

The triad of inattention, hyperactivity and impulsivity defines Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD).

Q19.
Match List - I with List - II. List - I: (A) Positive symptoms of schizophrenia (B) Negative symptoms of schizophrenia (C) Inappropriate affect (D) Psychomotor symptoms of schizophrenia List - II: (I) Pathological deficits (II) Odd grimaces and gestures (III) Bizarre additions (IV) Emotion that are unsuited to the situation Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
B. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
C. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
D. (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Positive symptoms = bizarre additions (III); Negative symptoms = pathological deficits (I); Inappropriate affect = emotion unsuited to situation (IV); Psychomotor symptoms = odd grimaces and gestures (II). Matches C.

Q20.
Rajini uses yoga and meditation to focus her attention. This is a form of therapy.
A. Electro convulsive
B. Humanistic existential
C. Cognitive
D. Alternative
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Yoga and meditation are categorised as alternative therapies (e.g., yoga, meditation, acupuncture) in NCERT's therapeutic approaches.

Q21.
The chief benefit of humanistic therapy is __________ which is the process of gaining increasing understanding of oneself and one's aspirations, emotions and motives.
A. Emotional insight
B. Instituting adaptive behaviours
C. Cognitive restructuring
D. Personal Growth
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

In humanistic-existential therapy, the chief benefit is emotional insight, the process of gaining increasing understanding of one's own aspirations, emotions and motives.

Q22.
Which of the following is not an ethical standard in Psychotherapy ?
A. Informed consent needs to be taken
B. Help to be provided by mindfulness based meditation
C. Confidentiality of the client should be maintained
D. Respect for human rights and dignity
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Ethical standards in psychotherapy include informed consent, confidentiality, and respect for human rights and dignity. Providing help through mindfulness-based meditation is a technique, not an ethical standard.

Q23.
When using the cognitive behaviour therapy, we follow some methods given below. Which one of the following is not used in this therapy ? (A) Addressing the childhood travmas on the client (B) Addressing the biological aspects through relaxation (C) Addressing the psychological aspects through behaviour therapy (D) Addressing the social aspects through environmental changes. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A), (C), (D)
B. (A), (B), (C), (D)
C. (B), (C), (D)
D. (A), (B), (D)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

CBT addresses biological aspects through relaxation (B), psychological through behaviour therapy (C), and social through environmental changes (D). Addressing childhood traumas (A) is psychodynamic, not used in CBT. The question asks which are NOT used; only (A) is not used. However given the option grouping, the intended answer is the set not used. Per NCERT CBT combines B, C, D; (A) is the one not used, so the closest correct grouping is A (which lists A,C,D). The single not-used method is (A).

Q24.
An alcoholic is given a mild electric shock and asked to smell the alcohol. Repeatedly pairing the smell of alcohol with the pair of the shock leads to giving up of alcohol by the person. Identify the behavioural technique being used here.
A. Negative reinforcement
B. Token economy
C. Aversive conditioning
D. Modeling
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Pairing an undesirable behaviour (smelling alcohol) with an aversive stimulus (electric shock) to reduce the behaviour is aversive conditioning.

Q25.
Out of the following statements, identify the statement that holds true for Albert Ellist Rational Emotive therapy. (A) The client is taught to recognise the bodily process and the emotions that are blocked out from awareness thus increasing self awareness and self acceptance (B) Unwanted behaviour can be reduced and wanted behaviour can be increased simultaneously through differential reinforcement (C) The first step in RET is the (ABC) antecedent belief consequence analysis. (D) In the process of RET, the irrational beliefs are refuted by the therapist through a process of non-directive questioning. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (C) and (D) only
B. (A) and (B) only
C. (B) and (D) only
D. (C) and (B) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

In Ellis's RET, the first step is the antecedent-belief-consequence (ABC) analysis (C), and irrational beliefs are refuted by the therapist (D). (A) describes Gestalt/humanistic therapy; (B) describes behaviour therapy. So (C) and (D) only.

Q26.
Sherif's summer camp experiment was conducted in 4 phases. Arrange in correct sequence the phases given below : (A) Intergroup competition (B) Friendship formation (C) Intergroup cooperation (D) Ingroup formation Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (C), (A), (B), (D)
B. (B), (D), (A), (C)
C. (A), (B), (C), (D)
D. (D), (A), (B), (C)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Sherif's Robbers Cave experiment phases: (1) friendship formation, (2) ingroup formation, (3) intergroup competition (conflict), (4) intergroup cooperation (reduction of conflict via superordinate goals). Sequence = B, D, A, C.

Q27.
__________ refers to togetherness, binding, or mutual attraction among group members.
A. Group think
B. Status
C. Cohesiveness
D. Roles
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Cohesiveness refers to the togetherness, binding or mutual attraction among group members that keeps them united.

Q28.
Manish gives something free to Rajat saying that it is for promotion of the product. Soon afterwards he asks Rajat to buy a product sold by his company. This technique of compliance is known as __________.
A. Foot in the door technique
B. The deadline technique
C. The door in the face technique
D. No refusal technique
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Giving a small free gift first to create a sense of obligation, then making a larger request, is the foot-in-the-door technique of compliance (gradual escalation from small to large).

Q29.
Match List - I with List - II. List - I: (A) Secondary group (B) In-group (C) Primary group (D) Formal group List - II: (I) 'We' feeling, supposed to be similar are viewed favourably (II) Pre existing formation, boundaries are less permeable (III) Functions are explicitly stated, based on specific rates (IV) Joins by choice, easy to leave Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
B. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
C. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
D. (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Secondary group = one joins by choice, easy to leave (IV); In-group = 'we' feeling, similar viewed favourably (I); Primary group = pre-existing formation, less permeable boundaries (II); Formal group = functions explicitly stated, based on specific rules (III). Matches A.

Q30.
Which one of the following is not associated with the stages of group formation ?
A. Forming
B. Alarming
C. Storming
D. Performing
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Tuckman's stages of group formation are forming, storming, norming, performing (and adjourning). 'Alarming' is not a stage.

Q31.
To understand interpersonal physical distance as given by Edward Hall, align the following from the least to the maximum distance. (A) Personal distance (B) Public distance (C) Social distance (D) Intimate distance Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (B), (C), (A), (D)
B. (C), (B), (A), (D)
C. (A), (C), (D), (B)
D. (D), (A), (C), (B)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Edward Hall's distances from least to maximum: intimate < personal < social < public, i.e. (D), (A), (C), (B). Matches option D.

Q32.
The experience of crowding has the following features : (A) Increase in privacy (B) Feeling of loss of control over social interactions (C) Feeling of discomfort (D) Negative view of the space around the person (E) Increase in motivation Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A), (B), (D) only
B. (B), (C), (D) only
C. (C), (D), (E) only
D. (A), (C), (E) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Crowding features: feeling of loss of control over social interactions (B), feeling of discomfort (C), and negative view of the surrounding space (D). Increased privacy (A) and increased motivation (E) are not features of crowding. Matches B.

Q33.
Match List - I with List - II. List - I: (A) Body language (B) Paraphrase (C) Reception (D) Authenticity List - II: (I) Repeat or summarise in one's own words (II) Behavioural expressions are consistent with what one values (III) Non verbal actions (IV) The initial step in the listening process Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
B. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
C. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
D. (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Body language = non verbal actions (III); Paraphrase = repeat/summarise in own words (I); Reception = initial step in listening (IV); Authenticity = behavioural expressions consistent with values (II). Matches C.

Q34.
J.P. Guilford classified the structure-of-intellect model into __________.
A. Cognition, Memory and Perception
B. Operations, Memory and Perception
C. Operations, Contents and Products
D. Operations, Contents and Memory
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Guilford's Structure of Intellect model classifies intelligence along three dimensions: operations, contents, and products.

Q35.
According to the PASS model, __________ allows us to think of possible courses of action, implement them to reach the target, and evaluate their effectiveness.
A. Planning
B. Arousal
C. Simultaneous processing
D. Successive processing
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

In the PASS model (Planning-Attention-Simultaneous-Successive), Planning allows formulating courses of action, implementing them, and evaluating their effectiveness.

Q36.
Persons high on __________ intelligence have finer sensibilities regarding their identity, human existence and meaning of life.
A. Interpersonal
B. Intrapersonal
C. Spatial
D. Linguistic
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Gardner's intrapersonal intelligence involves self-understanding, awareness of one's own identity, human existence and meaning of life.

Q37.
Atul is able to monitor his own and others emotions, discriminate amongst them and he uses this information to guide his thinking and actions. He exhibits __________.
A. High Intelligence Quotient
B. High Intelligence Quotient and Emotional Quotient
C. High Emotional Intelligence
D. High Emotional Intelligence but low Intelligence Quotient
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Monitoring one's own and others' emotions, discriminating among them, and using this to guide thinking and action is the definition of emotional intelligence (Salovey & Mayer). Hence high emotional intelligence.

Q38.
__________ involves employing systematic, organized and objective procedures to record behavioural phenomena occurring naturally in real time.
A. Psychological test
B. Self Report
C. Observation
D. Case study
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Observation involves systematic, organised, objective procedures to record naturally occurring behavioural phenomena in real time.

Q39.
The IQ range for individuals with moderate intellectual deficiency is :
A. 55 to 70
B. 35 to 50
C. 90 to 110
D. 20 to 35
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Moderate intellectual deficiency corresponds to an IQ range of approximately 35-49 (35 to 50). Mild is 55-70, severe is 20-35.

Q40.
The instinctual life force that energises the id is called :
A. Ego
B. Libido
C. Superego
D. Defence mechanisms
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Libido is the instinctual life force (sexual/psychic energy) that energises the id in Freud's theory.

In our day-to day life, we assign certain causes or reasons to a person's behaviour. This process is called attribution. Broadly, causes of a person are attributed to internal and external factors. Internal factors are related to situation. With reference to success and failure, Weiner has classified causes into internal/external and stable/unstable factors. In general, people attribute success to internal factors such as their ability and hard work. However, failure is attributed to external factors such as task difficulty and bad luck. Ability/fate and hard-work/task-difficulty are considered as stable and unstable factors respectively. Stable factors refer to those causes that do not change with time. It has been observed that people have a tendency to give greater weightage to internal factors than external one. This phenomenon is called the fundamental attribution error. This tendency is stronger in some cultures than in others. Research suggests that Indians tend to make more external attributions than Americans do.
Q41.
Match List - I with List - II. List - I (Characteristics): (A) Task characteristics (B) Hard work (C) Fate (D) Ability List - II (Causal factors): (I) Internal-stable (II) External-stable (III) Unstable-Internal (IV) Unstable-External Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
B. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
C. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
D. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Per the passage: Ability is internal-stable (I); hard work is internal-unstable/unstable-internal (III); task difficulty (task characteristics) is external-unstable/unstable-external (IV); fate is external-stable (II). So A(task)-IV, B(hard work)-III, C(fate)-II, D(ability)-I. Matches D.

Q42.
As per Weiner, if person A gives greater weightage to internal factors, then which one of the following will hold true for A ?
A. The task characteristic
B. A's intelligence
C. A's luck
D. Pleasant weather conditions
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Internal factors are those within the person, such as ability/intelligence and hard work. Task characteristic, luck and weather are external. Hence A's intelligence is an internal factor.

Q43.
People generally attribute failure to :
A. Personality
B. Disposition
C. External factors
D. Internal factors
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The passage states 'failure is attributed to external factors such as task difficulty and bad luck'. Hence people generally attribute failure to external factors.

Q44.
Fundamental attribution error is known as a tendency to give greater weightage to :
A. external factors than internal factors
B. stable factors than unstable factors
C. internal factors then external factors
D. unstable factors than stable factors
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The passage states fundamental attribution error is the tendency to give greater weightage to internal factors than external ones. Hence internal factors than external factors.

Q45.
Weiner is famous for his work on :
A. Attraction
B. Aptitude
C. Attribution
D. Affection
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The passage credits Weiner with classifying causes of success and failure, i.e., his work on attribution theory.

A person's thinking or behaviour is classified as abnormal if it violates social norms. Norms are expected behaviour in a group. Every culture has certain standards for accepting behaviour as per socially acceptable norms. For example - child marriage was a norm about hundred years ago. Those who did not marry their girl child like everyone else were considered to be breaking the norm. The most obvious problem with defining abnormality using social norms is that there is no universal agreement over social norms. Another definition of abnormality states that a person is considered abnormal if he/she is unable to perform the behaviours necessary for day-to-day living eg. self care, holding a job, managing everyday tasks. We must understand that mental health issues are prevalent in all cultures as there is ignorance and fear about psychological disorders. It is believed that these
Q46.
'A person's thinking or behaviour is classified as abnormal if it isolates social norms'. This statement refers to the concept of __________ in Abnormal Psychology.
A. Deviance
B. Distress
C. Dysfunction
D. Danger
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Violating/isolating social norms is the criterion of deviance in defining abnormality (the 4 D's: deviance, distress, dysfunction, danger).

Q47.
Norms of societies grow from its history, values, institutions, habits, skills, technology, art etc. These are together referred as its __________.
A. Community
B. Social norms
C. Culture
D. Rules
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The collective history, values, institutions, habits, skills, technology and art of a society together constitute its culture.

Q48.
'It is believed that psychological disorders are something to be ashamed of'. This is because of a __________ attached to mental illness.
A. Deviance
B. Danger
C. Distress
D. Stigma
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

The sense of shame and disgrace associated with mental illness is referred to as stigma.

Q49.
'A person is considered to be abnormal if he/she is unable to perform the behaviours necessary for day to day living'. This explains abnormality due to __________.
A. Deviance
B. Distress
C. Dysfunction
D. Danger
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Inability to perform behaviours necessary for day-to-day living (self care, holding a job, etc.) is the criterion of dysfunction.

Q50.
The best criterion for determining the normality of behaviour is that it :
A. follows the norms of a society
B. fosters overall wellbeing
C. is not distressing
D. is not dangerous
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Since the passage notes the problems with norms (no universal agreement) and distress/danger only describe single criteria, the best overall criterion for normality is that the behaviour fosters overall wellbeing of the person.

Original question paper source: National Testing Agency (NTA), CUET (UG) 2022. Reproduced for educational use. Answers & explanations by UniDrill.