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CUET 2022 Sociology Question Paper with Answers & Solutions

50 questions with answer key & explanations

Q1.
Life expectancy refers to:-
A. The estimated number of years that an average person is expected to survive
B. Total number of live births that a hypothetical woman would have if she lived through the reproductive age
C. Difference between birth rate and death rate
D. The number of live births per 1000 women in the child bearing age group
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Life expectancy is the estimated number of years an average person is expected to survive. Option B describes total fertility rate, C describes natural growth rate, D describes fertility rate.

Q2.
A situation where a large cohort of women of reproductive age will fuel population growth over the next generation, even if each woman has fewer children than previous generation did is called:
A. Fertility Rate
B. Total Fertility Rate
C. Population Momentum
D. Population Growth
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Population momentum is the tendency for population to keep growing because of a large cohort of women in reproductive age, even when fertility per woman declines.

Q3.
The type of demography that enquires into the wider causes and consequences of social Structures and processes on population is called:
A. Social Demography
B. Formal Demography
C. Arithmetic Progression
D. Geometric Progression
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Social demography enquires into the wider social causes and consequences of population trends, whereas formal demography is primarily quantitative measurement of population processes.

Q4.
Famines and diseases are nature's way of dealing with the imbalance of food supply vis-a-vis increase in population. Malthus identified this as :
A. Preventive checks
B. Positive checks
C. Negative checks
D. Promotive checks
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Malthus called famines, diseases and natural calamities 'positive checks' (nature's checks) on population, as opposed to 'preventive checks' such as postponing marriage.

Q5.
Sex ratio refers to the :
A. Number of females per 100 males in a given area at a specified time period.
B. Number of males per 1000 females in a given area at a specified time period.
C. Number of females per 1000 males in a given area at a specified time period.
D. Number of females per 1000 males in a given area at a non-specified time period.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1000 males in a given area at a specified time period.

Q6.
Match List I with List II List I: A. Jatavas, B. Multani Lohars, C. Khasis, D. Vokkaligas List II: I. Muslim Community, II. Meghalaya, III. Karnataka, IV. Uttar Pradesh Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
B. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
C. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
D. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Jatavas - Uttar Pradesh (IV); Multani Lohars - Muslim Community (I); Khasis - Meghalaya (II); Vokkaligas - Karnataka (III). Hence A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III.

Q7.
Match List I with List II List I - Contribution: A. Brahmo Samaj, B. Widow remarriage, C. Country's first school for girls, D. Anti Caste Movement List II - Important Personalities: I. M. G. Ranade, II. Raja Ram Mohan Roy, III. Jyotiba Phule, IV. Savitri Bai Phule Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
B. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
C. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
D. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Brahmo Samaj - Raja Ram Mohan Roy (II); Widow remarriage - M. G. Ranade (I); Country's first school for girls - Savitri Bai Phule (IV); Anti Caste Movement - Jyotiba Phule (III). Hence A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III.

Q8.
The legal provisions against violence and humiliation to Dalits and Adivasis strengthened by :
A. Government of India Act, 1935
B. Scheduled Castes and Tribes Act, 1989
C. 93rd Constitutional Amendment , 2006
D. Article 17, Constitution of India 1950
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 specifically strengthened legal provisions against violence and humiliation of Dalits and Adivasis.

Q9.
Which of the following is not the characteristic of Caste?
A. Social and Religious hierarchy
B. Segmental Division of Society
C. Unrestricted Choice of Occupation
D. Restrictions on feeding and Social Intercourse
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Caste is characterized by hereditary, restricted (not free) choice of occupation. Unrestricted choice of occupation is NOT a feature of caste.

Q10.
The terms 'Matrilineal' and 'Patrilineal' are associated with:
A. Residence of family
B. Line of descent
C. Nature of marriage rules
D. Structure of family
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Matrilineal and patrilineal refer to the line of descent/inheritance traced through the mother or father respectively.

Q11.
Who wrote the book " The Wealth of Nations"?
A. John Smith
B. David Ricardo
C. Adam Smith
D. Emile Durkheim
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

'The Wealth of Nations' (1776) was written by Adam Smith, the founder of modern economics.

Q12.
Liberalisation can be understood as :
A. Privatisation and Marketisation
B. Government regulations for industry
C. Promoting government investment
D. Increasing import duties on goods
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Liberalisation involves reducing state control through privatisation and marketisation, opening the economy to market forces and removing trade restrictions.

Q13.
'Other Backward Class' refers to:
A. Socially and educationally backward class
B. Part of SC , ST
C. Dominant Caste
D. Economically and politically powerful classes
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

OBCs are socially and educationally backward classes, a heterogeneous group neither part of forward castes nor SC/ST.

Q14.
Match List I with List II List I Concept: A. Third gender, B. Apartheid, C. Adivasis, D. Transgender List II Characteristics: I. Separation of races, II. Social category of persons who are neither male nor female, III. Conversion of gender status of body into opposite gender by choice, IV. Indigenous population, identity struggles Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
B. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
C. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
D. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Third gender - persons neither male nor female (II); Apartheid - separation of races (I); Adivasis - indigenous population, identity struggles (IV); Transgender - conversion of gender status by choice (III). Hence A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III.

Q15.
The term that literally means 'pre-judgement', that is, an opinion formed in advance of any familiarity with the subject, before considering any available evidence is:
A. Stratification
B. Discrimination
C. Prejudice
D. Stereotypes
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Prejudice literally means 'pre-judgement' - an opinion formed in advance without familiarity with the subject or evidence.

Q16.
Match List I with List II List I Books: A. Stree Purush Tulana, B. Three Sermons on Human nature, C. Sultana's Dream, D. The texts of the Hindu law List II Authors: I. M. G. Ranade, II. Tarabai Shinde, III. Bishop Joseph Butler, IV. Begum Rukkaiyah Hossain Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
B. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
C. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
D. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Stree Purush Tulana - Tarabai Shinde (II); Three Sermons on Human Nature - Bishop Joseph Butler (III); Sultana's Dream - Begum Rokeya/Rukkaiyah Hossain (IV); The texts of the Hindu law - M. G. Ranade (I). Hence A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I.

Q17.
Indian nationalism is inclusive because it recognises
A. Diversity
B. Majority groups
C. Regionalism
D. Has one national language
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Indian nationalism is inclusive precisely because it recognises and accommodates the country's vast diversity of religion, language, region and culture.

Q18.
Which of the following is NOT correct?
A. There is separation of religious and political authority in Western Secularism
B. In Indian Context, Secularism goes hand in hand with Communalism
C. Secular Indian state respect all religion
D. A Secular state does not favour any religion
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Secularism is opposed to communalism, not aligned with it. The statement that Indian secularism goes hand in hand with communalism is incorrect.

Q19.
Community Identity is based on:
A. Birth and belongingness
B. Qualification and achievements
C. Choice and competency
D. Competency and negotiation
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Community identity is ascribed - based on birth and belonging, not on achievement or choice. These are unchosen, ascriptive ties.

Q20.
Identify the correct statement:
A. During emergency, people experienced authoritarian rule
B. During elections, immediately after the emergency, people voted overwhelmingly for Congress party
C. The Civil liberties of people remain unaffected during the emergency
D. Press was given freedom of speech during emergency
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

During the Emergency (1975-77) people experienced authoritarian rule; civil liberties were suspended, press was censored, and Congress was voted out in the 1977 elections. Hence only A is correct.

Q21.
Which of the following is not Sanskritisation?
A. Exaggerate social mobility
B. Improve positional status for individuals
C. Rests on purity and pollution
D. Dalit Culture eroded
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Sanskritisation involves positional change of an entire group/caste within the hierarchy, not improvement of status for individuals. It exaggerates/critiqued for overstating mobility, rests on purity-pollution notions, and erodes Dalit culture. Hence B is NOT a feature.

Q22.
Colonialism had a deep impact on structure of the Indian Society. Which of the following is not true regarding colonialism in India?
A. Britishers interfered with Indian markets to ensure greater profits
B. They altered the way of production
C. They implemented Forest Act which changed the lives of pastoralists
D. They benefited from continuous flow of tribute without interference in economic base
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Unlike earlier conquerors, British colonialism deeply restructured the economic base (markets, production, land, forest laws). The idea that they merely extracted tribute without interfering in the economic base is NOT true of British colonialism.

Q23.
Cities play a key role in economic systems of the empires. Which of the following is not one of them?
A. Goods can be cheaply imported
B. Concrete expression of Global Capitalism
C. Link between margins of Colonized India and Britain
D. To maintain the traditional values
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Colonial cities were nodes of global capitalism, channels for cheap imports, and links between the colonised margins and Britain. Maintaining traditional values was NOT their economic role.

Q24.
The first society to undergo industrialization was ______
A. Germany
B. America (USA)
C. Britain
D. India
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Britain was the first society to industrialize, with the Industrial Revolution beginning there in the late 18th century.

Q25.
A process of decline in the influence of religions is called:-
A. Communalism
B. Modernization
C. Regionalism
D. Secularization
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Secularization is the process whereby religion loses its influence over various spheres of social life.

Q26.
Which of the following Statements is not power and responsibility delegated to the Panchayats?
A. To prepare plans and schemes for economic development
B. To promote skills that will enhance social justice
C. To levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees
D. To make sure that endogamy is practiced amongst rural youth
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Panchayats prepare development plans, promote social justice, and levy/collect taxes and fees. Ensuring endogamy is not a power or responsibility of Panchayats.

Q27.
The Panchayat that has the authority to hear some petty, civil and criminal cases is:-
A. Zila Panchayat
B. Gram Panchayat
C. Nyaya Panchayat
D. Gram Sabhas
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Nyaya Panchayats (judicial panchayats) have the authority to hear petty civil and criminal cases and impose fines.

Q28.
Which of the following is not a change due to green revolution?
A. Shift from payment in kind to payment in cash
B. Increasing bonded labour
C. Rise of rural elites
D. Commercialization of agriculture
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The Green Revolution led to a shift to cash payment, rise of rural/market-oriented elites, and commercialization. It loosened (decreased) bonded labour and patron-client ties rather than increasing bonded labour.

Q29.
Commercialization of agriculture does not lead to:
A. Regional inequality
B. Integration of rural to wider economy
C. Development of rural infrastructure
D. Increase in organic farming
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Commercialization of agriculture promotes regional inequality, integration with the wider market economy and rural infrastructure, but does not promote organic farming (it usually increases chemical input use).

Q30.
Washermen, Potters, Goldsmiths, Oil-pressures are known as:
A. Dalits
B. Service Castes
C. Labourers
D. Vaishyas
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Occupational caste groups such as washermen, potters, goldsmiths and oil-pressers are classified as service castes who provided specialised services in the village economy.

Q31.
Choose the correct option: Farmers suicide can be linked to 'agrarian distress' caused by structural changes in agriculture. These include: A. Liberalization policies B. Declining State Support C. High Cost inputs D. Community involvement increased in agricultural operations E. Changing Crop pattern Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A, C, D, E
B. A, B, C, E
C. A, B, D, E
D. B, C, D, E
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Agrarian distress causes include liberalization (A), declining state support (B), high cost inputs (C) and changing crop pattern (E). Increased community involvement (D) is not a cause of distress. Hence A, B, C, E.

Q32.
Which of the following statement is NOT true about the second phase of green revolution?
A. Increasing dependence on market
B. Farmers switched to Multi-crop system from Mono-crop system
C. Green revolution resulted in increased regional inequalities
D. Increased risks for farmers
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The Green Revolution increased market dependence, regional inequality and farmer risk, and pushed farmers toward mono-crop (single high-yield crop) systems, not multi-crop. So B is NOT true.

Q33.
Match the Concepts/Sociologists given in List I with their Characteristics given below in List II List I Concepts/Sociologists: A. Alienation, B. Convergence thesis, C. Scientific Management, D. Harry Braverman List II Characteristics: I. Work broken into small repetitive elements to increase efficiency, II. When workers do not enjoy work and task becomes repetitive and exhausting, III. All countries follow same path to modernization, IV. Machinery actually de skills workers Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
B. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
C. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
D. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Alienation - workers do not enjoy work, task repetitive and exhausting (II); Convergence thesis - all countries follow same path to modernization (III); Scientific Management - work broken into small repetitive elements to increase efficiency (I); Harry Braverman - machinery actually de-skills workers (IV). Hence A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV.

Q34.
Arrange in sequence the process of Bidi making, A. Dampening the tender leaves B. Contractor sells bidi to manufacturer C. Filling tobacco evenly and trying them with thread. D. Manufacturer sells to distributor. E. Villagers picks up tender leaves and sell them to forest department Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. E, C, A, B, D
B. E, A, C, B, D
C. E, B, C, A, D
D. A, C, B, D, E
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Sequence: villagers pick and sell tender leaves (E), dampen the tender leaves (A), fill tobacco and tie with thread (C), contractor sells bidi to manufacturer (B), manufacturer sells to distributor (D). Hence E, A, C, B, D.

Q35.
When government sells its share to several public sector companies. This process is known as ______
A. Deinvestment
B. Uninvestment
C. Laissez-faire
D. Disinvestment
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

When the government sells its shares/stake in public sector companies, the process is called disinvestment.

Q36.
Retail chains are a threat to Indian market because โ€“
A. They promote the policy of liberalization
B. They provide more job opportunity
C. Small local chains (grocery stores) will be destroyed
D. Retail sector is attractive
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Large retail chains are seen as a threat because they can destroy small local shops/grocery stores and the livelihoods dependent on them.

Q37.
Match the Industrial Outcomes given in List I with their Characteristics given below in List II List I Industrial Outcomes: A. Engineers using a software for draughting, B. Trade Union, C. Silicosis in miners, D. Growth of IT sector List II Characteristics: I. Occupational hazard, II. De-skilling of workers, III. Knowledge economy, IV. Bargaining power of workers Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
B. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-III
C. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
D. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Engineers using software for draughting - de-skilling of workers (II); Trade Union - bargaining power of workers (IV); Silicosis in miners - occupational hazard (I); Growth of IT sector - knowledge economy (III). Hence A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III.

Q38.
Name the branch of management theory that seeks to increase productivity and competitiveness through the creation of a unique organizational culture involving all members of a firm.
A. Culture of Consumption
B. Corporate Culture
C. Knowledge economy
D. Competitive Culture
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Corporate culture is the branch of management theory that seeks to boost productivity and competitiveness by creating a unique organizational culture involving all firm members.

Q39.
Match the (Concepts) given in List I with their Characteristics given below in List II List I - Industrial Outcomes: A. Globalization, B. Electric Economy, C. Liberalisation, D. Cellular Telephone List II - Characteristics: I. Economic Globalisation, II. Growing interdependence between people, regions and countries, III. Growth in the usage of cell phones, IV. Steady removal of the rules that regulates Indian trade and finance regulations Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
C. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
D. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Globalization - growing interdependence between people, regions and countries (II); Electric Economy - economic globalisation (I); Liberalisation - steady removal of rules regulating Indian trade and finance (IV); Cellular Telephone - growth in usage of cell phones (III). Hence A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III.

Q40.
In 1957, All India Radio acquired hugely popular channel which grew to become a money-spinning channel for AIR. The name of the channel was:
A. Hum Log
B. Vividh Bharati
C. Doordarshan
D. Buniyaad
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Vividh Bharati, started in 1957, became a hugely popular and money-spinning radio channel for All India Radio (carrying advertisements/film music).

Jharkhand is one of the newly formed states of India carved out of South Bihar in the year 2000. Behind the formation of this state lies more than a century of resistance. The social movement for Jharkhand had a charismatic leader in Birsa Munda, an adivasi who led a major uprising against the British. After his death Birsa became an important icon of the movement literate adivasis began to research and write about him. They disseminated information about tribal customs and cultural practices. This helped create a unified ethnic consciousness and a shared identity as Jharkhandis.
Q41.
Name the leader who headed the social movement for Jharkhand state.
A. Kalidas
B. Gunda Dhar
C. Birsa Munda
D. Mahatma Gandhi
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The passage states the social movement for Jharkhand had a charismatic leader in Birsa Munda, an adivasi who led a major uprising against the British.

Q42.
Choose the incorrect feature of a social movement.
A. Sustained Collective Action
B. Shared objectives and ideologies
C. Spontaneous and disorganized
D. Leadership
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

A social movement involves sustained collective action, shared objectives/ideologies, organization and leadership. Being spontaneous and disorganized is NOT a feature of a social movement.

Q43.
Tribal movements are considered to be a part of New Social Movement. What comprises of New Social Movement?
A. Old issues of economic inequality
B. Recognisation of power relatives
C. Central role of political parties
D. Quality life issues, identity, environment
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

New Social Movements are based on quality-of-life issues, identity and environment, going beyond old class-based economic inequality issues.

Q44.
Adivasis shared a common hatred towards______ A. Dikus B. Migrant traders C. Moneylenders D. Christian missionaries Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. B, C and D Only
B. C, D and A Only
C. A, B and C Only
D. A, B and D Only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Adivasis shared a common hatred toward 'dikus' (outsiders), which included migrant traders and moneylenders who exploited them. Christian missionaries were not the common object of hatred. Hence A, B and C only.

Q45.
Tribal movements help in creating, among Jharkhandis, a sense of :-
A. Ethnic consciousness, shared identity
B. Marginalization, injustice
C. Tribal customs and cultural practices
D. Poverty, insecurity
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The passage concludes that the movement 'helped create a unified ethnic consciousness and a shared identity as Jharkhandis.'

The industry began in India in 1851. Most of the tea gardens were situated in Assam. Since Assam was sparsely populated and the tea plantations were often located on uninhabited hillsides, the bulk of the sorely needed labour had to be imported from other provinces. But to bring thousands of people every year from their far-off homes into strange lands, possessing an unhealthy climate required the provision of financial and other incentives which the tea planters were unwilling to offer. Instead they took recourse to fraud coercion and persuaded the government to pass regressive penal laws. Thus the recruitment of labourers for tea gardens of Assam was carried on by contractor under the provisions of transport of Native Labourers Act (No 111) of 1863 of Bengal as amended in 1865, 1870 and 1873
Q46.
The industry developed during the ______
A. Pre โ€“ colonial period
B. Colonial period
C. Post โ€“ independence period
D. Vedic period
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The passage states the tea industry began in India in 1851 under British rule, i.e., during the colonial period.

Q47.
Tea industry during colonial times was ______
A. Labour intensive
B. Machinery intensive
C. Financially well paid jobs for labourers
D. Based on democratic set up
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The passage stresses the bulk of labour had to be imported and recruited in large numbers, indicating the tea industry was labour intensive.

Q48.
Which of these reasons is NOT valid for the questions given below: The tea plantations was based on migrant labourers because:
A. The plantations were based in sparsely populated areas
B. Offered high wages to workers
C. Work was labour intensive in nature
D. Plantation was located in uninhabited hillsides
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The passage says planters were unwilling to offer financial incentives, so high wages were NOT a reason. Migrant labour was used because of sparsely populated, uninhabited hillside locations and labour-intensive work.

Q49.
Transport of Native Labourers Act (No 111) of 1863 was not helpful for:
A. Tea plantation owners
B. Contractors
C. Colonial government
D. Labourers
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

The Act was a regressive penal law used to coerce and exploit labourers; it benefited planters, contractors and the colonial government but was NOT helpful for the labourers.

Q50.
Choose the right/correct answer. Transport of Native Labourers Act (No 111) of 1863 of Bengal as amended in the years ______
A. 1947, 1983, 1985
B. 1863, 1865, 1873
C. 1865, 1870, 1873
D. 1965, 1870, 1873
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The passage states the Act of 1863 was 'amended in 1865, 1870 and 1873.'

Original question paper source: National Testing Agency (NTA), CUET (UG) 2022. Reproduced for educational use. Answers & explanations by UniDrill.