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CUET 2023 Biology Question Paper with Answers & Solutions

50 questions with answer key & explanations

Q1.
Parthenogenesis does not occur in :
A. Rotifers
B. Honeybees
C. Lizards
D. Mammals
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Parthenogenesis (development of offspring from unfertilised eggs) occurs in rotifers, honeybees (drones develop from unfertilised eggs) and some lizards. It does not occur naturally in mammals.

Q2.
Out of the following which one is not a hermaphrodite ?
A. Sponge
B. Earthworm
C. Leech
D. Cockroach
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Sponges, earthworms and leeches are hermaphrodites (bisexual, both sex organs in same individual). Cockroach is dioecious/unisexual with separate sexes.

Q3.
Match List - I with List - II. List-I: (A) Polyembryony (B) Parthenocarpy (C) False Fruit (D) Embryo Sac List-II: (I) Apple (II) Female gametophyte (III) Orange (IV) Banana
A. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
B. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
C. (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
D. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Polyembryony - Orange (more than one embryo, e.g. citrus); Parthenocarpy - Banana (seedless fruit); False Fruit - Apple (thalamus contributes to fruit); Embryo Sac - Female gametophyte. So (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II).

Q4.
Arrange the following stages of development of a dicot embryo in the order of their occurrence : (A) Formation of heart shaped embryo (B) Formation of typical dicot embryo (C) Formation of zygote (D) Formation of globular embryo
A. (A), (B), (C), (D)
B. (C), (D), (A), (B)
C. (C), (A), (B), (D)
D. (D), (A), (B), (C)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Dicot embryogeny: zygote -> globular -> heart-shaped -> mature/typical dicot embryo. Order = (C), (D), (A), (B).

Q5.
Select the hormone which is not secreted by human placenta ?
A. Estrogen
B. Progestogen
C. Human chorionic gonadotropin
D. Luteinising hormone
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Placenta secretes hCG, hPL, estrogen and progestogen. Luteinising hormone (LH) is secreted by the anterior pituitary, not the placenta.

Q6.
Select the correct statements regarding menstrual cycle in human female : (A) The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called menopause. (B) The ovulation takes place in the middle of cycle (about 14th day), when the level of progesterone is at maximum level. (C) In absence of fertilisation, the corpus luteum degenerates which causes the disintegration of endometrium leading to menstruation. (D) In human beings, menstrual cycle ceases around 50 years of age.
A. (A) and (B) only
B. (B) and (D) only
C. (A) and (C) only
D. (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

(A) is wrong: first menstruation is menarche, not menopause. (B) is wrong: at ovulation LH is at peak, not progesterone. (C) is correct and (D) is correct (menopause around 50 years). So (C) and (D) only.

Q7.
Identify the terminal method used to prevent pregnancy is :
A. Lactational amenorrhea
B. Sterilisation
C. Intra Uterine Device
D. Periodic abstinence
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Sterilisation (tubectomy/vasectomy) is a terminal/permanent method of contraception. The others are temporary/reversible methods.

Q8.
Match List - I with List - II. List-I: (A) Lippes loop (B) Vaults (C) Periodic abstinence (D) Progestasert List-II: (I) Barrier (II) Hormone releasing device (III) Non medicated IUDs (IV) Natural method
A. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
B. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
C. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
D. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Lippes loop - Non-medicated IUD (III); Vaults - Barrier (I); Periodic abstinence - Natural method (IV); Progestasert - Hormone releasing device (II). So (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II).

Q9.
Arrange the following steps of experiments performed by Griffith in correct series. (A) 'S' strain -> injected into mice -> Mice died (B) 'S' strain (Heat killed) -> injected into mice -> Mice lived (C) 'R' strain -> injected into mice -> Mice lived (D) 'S' strain (Heat killed) + 'R' Strain (Live) -> injected into mice -> Mice died
A. (A), (B), (C), (D)
B. (B), (A), (C), (D)
C. (B), (C), (D), (A)
D. (A), (C), (B), (D)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Griffith's transformation experiment sequence: live S kills mice (A); live R harmless (C); heat-killed S harmless (B); heat-killed S + live R kills mice showing transformation (D). Order = (A), (C), (B), (D).

Q10.
Which of the following is not a Mendelian Disorder ?
A. Haemophilia
B. Sickle-cell anaemia
C. Down's Syndrome
D. Phenylketonuria
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Haemophilia, sickle-cell anaemia and phenylketonuria are Mendelian (single-gene) disorders. Down's Syndrome is a chromosomal disorder (trisomy 21), not Mendelian.

Q11.
Match List - I with List - II. List-I: (A) Metabolic Disorder (B) Pedigree analysis (C) Thalassemia (D) Trisomy of 21st chromosome List-II: (I) Family tree over generation (II) Blood disease (III) Phenylketonuria (IV) Down's Syndrome
A. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
B. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
C. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
D. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Metabolic Disorder - Phenylketonuria (III); Pedigree analysis - Family tree over generation (I); Thalassemia - Blood disease (II); Trisomy of 21st chromosome - Down's Syndrome (IV). So (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV).

Q12.
Identify the statements true for RNA. (A) RNA acts as a genetic material for some viruses. (B) RNA also functions as an adapter molecule. (C) RNA has hexose sugar as its backbone. (D) RNA also acts as catalyst in some cases.
A. (A), (B) and (C) only
B. (A), (B) and (D) only
C. (B), (C) and (D) only
D. (A), (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

RNA is genetic material in some viruses (A); tRNA is adapter molecule (B); ribozymes are RNA catalysts (D). (C) is false: RNA has pentose (ribose), not hexose. So (A), (B) and (D) only.

Q13.
Match List - I with List - II. List-I: (A) Ribosome (B) Histone (C) DNA polymerase (D) RNA polymerase List-II: (I) Replication (II) Transcription (III) Translation (IV) Nucleosome
A. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
B. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
C. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
D. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Ribosome - Translation (III); Histone - Nucleosome (IV); DNA polymerase - Replication (I); RNA polymerase - Transcription (II). So (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II).

Q14.
In DNA N-glycosidic linkage is present between __________.
A. Pentose sugar and Phosphate group
B. A nitrogenous base and a Pentose sugar
C. Two nitrogenous bases
D. Two pentose sugars
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

An N-glycosidic linkage joins a nitrogenous base to the pentose sugar (forming a nucleoside). The sugar-phosphate link is a phosphoester bond.

Q15.
Identify the factor which does not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium ?
A. Genetic drift
B. Natural selection
C. Genetic recombination
D. Genetic equilibrium
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Factors that disturb Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium: gene migration, genetic drift, mutation, genetic recombination and natural selection. Genetic equilibrium is the equilibrium state itself, not a disturbing factor.

Q16.
Single step large mutation leading to speciation is also called :
A. Founder effect
B. Saltation
C. Branching descent
D. Natural selection
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

A single-step large mutation that leads to speciation is called saltation (as proposed by Hugo de Vries).

Q17.
Paleontological evidences for evolution refers to :
A. Development of embryo
B. Homologous Organs
C. Fossils
D. Analogous Organs
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Paleontological evidence is based on the study of fossils (remains of past organisms in rock strata).

Q18.
Match List - I with List - II. List-I: (A) Lymphoid Organ (B) Cancer (C) HIV (D) Typhoid List-II: (I) ELISA (II) Widal Test (III) Bone marrow and Thymus (IV) Carcinogens
A. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
B. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
C. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
D. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Lymphoid Organ - Bone marrow and Thymus (III); Cancer - Carcinogens (IV); HIV - ELISA (I, diagnostic test); Typhoid - Widal Test (II). So (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II).

Q19.
The statements are not true for allergy : (A) Allergy is due to release of chemicals like histamine and serotonin (B) Allergens are the substances which cause allergy (C) The antibodies produced due to allergens are IgA type (D) Adrenalin and steroids quickly enhance the symptoms of allergy
A. (C) and (D) only
B. (A) and (C) only
C. (A) and (B) only
D. (B) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

(A) and (B) are true. (C) is false: allergy antibodies are IgE type, not IgA. (D) is false: adrenalin and steroids reduce (not enhance) allergy symptoms. Hence statements not true are (C) and (D) only.

Q20.
Match List - I (Causal Agent) with List - II (Disease). List-I: (A) Salmonella typhi (B) Streptococcus pneumoniae (C) Rhino Viruses (D) Plasmodium List-II: (I) Typhoid (II) Pneumonia (III) Common cold (IV) Malaria
A. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
B. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
C. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
D. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Salmonella typhi - Typhoid (I); Streptococcus pneumoniae - Pneumonia (II); Rhino Viruses - Common cold (III); Plasmodium - Malaria (IV). So (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV).

Q21.
Which of the following crop was made resistant to yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew by mutation breeding ?
A. Cowpea
B. Flat bean
C. Mung bean
D. Brassica
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew was induced through mutation breeding (NCERT).

Q22.
Match List - I with List - II. List-I: (A) Sterilized plant part (B) Genetically similar plants (C) Meristem (D) Somatic hybrids List-II: (I) Pomato (II) Virus free culture (III) Somaclones (IV) Explant
A. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
B. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
C. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
D. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Sterilized plant part - Explant (IV); Genetically similar plants - Somaclones (III); Meristem - Virus free culture (II); Somatic hybrids - Pomato (I). So (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I).

Q23.
Sonalika and Ratna respectively are 'High Yielding Varieties' (HYV) of :
A. Wheat and Rice
B. Rice and Wheat
C. Maize and Rice
D. Wheat and Millet
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Sonalika (and Kalyan Sona) are semi-dwarf HYV wheat varieties; Ratna is a semi-dwarf rice variety. So Wheat and Rice respectively.

Q24.
Which of the following is not a nitrogen fixing micro organism ?
A. Azotobacter
B. Oscillatoria
C. Acetobacter
D. Nostoc
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Azotobacter, Oscillatoria and Nostoc are nitrogen-fixing organisms. Acetobacter is involved in acetic acid (vinegar) production and is not a nitrogen fixer.

Q25.
The large holes in 'Swiss Cheese' are due to :
A. Production of large amount of $O_2$
B. Citric acid
C. Production of large amount of $CO_2$
D. Ethyl alcohol
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The large holes in Swiss cheese are produced by large amounts of $CO_2$ released by the bacterium Propionibacterium sharmanii.

Q26.
Which of the following is not a cyanobacteria ?
A. Nostoc
B. Glomus
C. Anabaena
D. Oscillatoria
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Nostoc, Anabaena and Oscillatoria are cyanobacteria. Glomus is a genus of mycorrhizal fungi, not a cyanobacterium.

Q27.
Agarose, a gel used as matrix in gel electrophorises is a natural polymer which is extracted from :
A. Soya bean
B. Sea weeds
C. Sea anemone
D. Sea corals
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Agarose is a natural polymer extracted from sea weeds (marine algae).

Q28.
The first instance of construction of an artificial recombinant DNA molecule was carried out on the plasmid of :
A. Bacillus thuringiensis
B. Escherichia coli
C. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
D. Salmonella typhimurium
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Cohen and Boyer constructed the first recombinant DNA by joining an antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid (pSC101) of Salmonella; however NCERT states the first recombinant DNA was made using a plasmid from Salmonella typhimurium. NCERT line: 'The construction of the first recombinant DNA emerged from the possibility of linking a gene encoding antibiotic resistance with a native plasmid (autonomously replicating circular extra-chromosomal DNA) of Salmonella typhimurium.'

Q29.
Antibiotic resistance gene in a vector helps in the selection of :
A. Recombinant cells
B. Transformed cells
C. Competent cells
D. Totipotent cells
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The antibiotic resistance gene acts as a selectable marker that helps select transformants (transformed cells) from non-transformants by growing them on antibiotic-containing medium.

Q30.
Identify the gene which is not effective against cotton boll worms ?
A. cryIAb
B. cryIAc
C. cryIIAb
D. Both (2) and (3)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

cryIAc and cryIIAb control cotton bollworms; cryIAb controls corn borer. So cryIAb is not effective against cotton bollworms.

Q31.
The process of RNA interference (RNAi) was used in Tobacco plant to develop resistance against :
A. Viruses
B. Fungi
C. Nematodes
D. Insects
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

RNAi was used in tobacco plants to develop resistance against the nematode Meloidogyne incognita.

Q32.
Common term used to refer the use of bio-resources by multinational companies and other organisations without proper authorisation and compensatory payment to the countries and people concerned is :
A. Bio-informatics
B. Biopiracy
C. Biopatenting
D. Biological theft
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Biopiracy is the term for the use of bio-resources by MNCs and others without proper authorisation and compensatory payment.

Q33.
Out of following plants, which one is not browsed by cattle :
A. Wheat
B. Cowpea
C. Sugar cane
D. Calotropis
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Calotropis produces toxic cardiac glycosides which make it unpalatable, so it is not browsed/grazed by cattle. The other crops are eaten.

Q34.
Fresh water animals cannot live for long in sea water and vice versa as they face :
A. Temperature variations
B. Tidal waves
C. Predators
D. Osmotic problems
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Differences in salt concentration between fresh water and sea water cause osmotic problems, so animals cannot survive long in the other medium.

Q35.
The natural interconnections of food chain is :
A. GFC
B. DFC
C. Food web
D. Biomass
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Natural interconnection of multiple food chains forms a food web.

Q36.
Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding food chain ? (A) Primary carnivores are the tertiary consumers (B) The flow of energy form the sun to producers and then to consumers is unidirectional (C) The death of the organism is the initation of detritus food chain (D) Plant are the primary consumers as they utilise the solar energy for making food
A. (A) and (B) only
B. (A) and (D) only
C. (B) and (C) only
D. (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

(A) is incorrect: primary carnivores are secondary consumers, not tertiary. (D) is incorrect: plants are producers, not primary consumers. (B) and (C) are correct. So incorrect statements are (A) and (D) only.

Q37.
The historic convention on Biological Diversity held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 is also called :
A. The World Summit
B. MAB Programme
C. The Earth Summit
D. G - 16 Summit
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The Convention on Biological Diversity held at Rio de Janeiro in 1992 is also called the Earth Summit.

Q38.
Which of the following area is India's one of the biodiversity hot spots ?
A. Eastern Ghats
B. Indo-Burma Plains
C. Aravali Hills
D. Indo-Gangetic Plains
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

India's biodiversity hotspots include the Western Ghats, Himalaya, Indo-Burma region and Sundaland. Indo-Burma is the correct hotspot among the options.

Q39.
Dobson Units (DU) are used to measure :
A. Biodiversity index
B. Thickness of ozone layer
C. Sustainability index
D. Thickness of canopy in rainforest
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Ozone thickness is measured in Dobson Units (DU).

Q40.
Which of the following is NOT a category of waste generated by human beings in daily practice ?
A. Radio-active waste
B. Bio-degradable waste
C. Plastic waste
D. Non-biodegradable waste
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Daily household/municipal waste is broadly biodegradable, plastic and non-biodegradable. Radioactive waste is not generated in daily human practice.

Parasitism has evolved in many taxonomic groups from plants to higher vertebrates. Many parasites have evolved to be host specific in such a way that both host and the parasite tend to co-evolve. In accordance with their life styles, parasite evolve special adaptations and complex life cycle.
Q41.
Complex life cycle of parasites mean :
A. Having only one intermediate host
B. Having special adaptations to cling on to the host
C. Having many hosts
D. Having one or two intermediate hosts to facilitate parasitisation of its primary host
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

A complex life cycle of parasites involves one or two intermediate hosts that facilitate parasitisation of the primary host (NCERT).

Q42.
Parasites harm the host by :
A. Reducing its size
B. Improving its growth and reproduction
C. Reducing its survival, growth, reproduction and population density
D. Improving its survival, growth and reproduction
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Parasites harm the host by reducing its survival, growth, reproduction and population density (NCERT definition of parasitism's effect).

Q43.
Match List - I with List - II. List-I: (A) Cuckoo and Crow (B) Copepods (C) Plasmodium (D) Orchids and Mango tree List-II: (I) Ectoparasite (II) Commensal Organism (III) Brood Parasitism (IV) Endoparasite
A. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
B. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
C. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
D. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Cuckoo and Crow - Brood Parasitism (III); Copepods (on fish) - Ectoparasite (I); Plasmodium - Endoparasite (IV); Orchids on Mango tree - Commensal Organism (II). So (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II).

Q44.
Identify the statements which are not true with respect to host parasite relationship. (A) Host and parasite tend to co-evolve. (B) Parasite have evolved elaborate nervous system for survival. (C) If the host evolves to reject the parasite, the parasite also evolve to counteract them in order to be successful with the same host species. (D) If the host evolves special mechanisms for rejecting the parasite, the parasite evolves to be successful in the another host species.
A. (A) and (B) only
B. (C) and (D) only
C. (B) and (D) only
D. (A) and (C) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Parasites tend to lose unnecessary organs (e.g. nervous, digestive systems), so (B) 'elaborate nervous system' is false. (D) is false since co-evolution means the parasite counteracts in the same host species, not shifts to another host. (A) and (C) are true. So not true = (B) and (D).

Q45.
What are the intermediate hosts for human liver fluke ?
A. Snail and Fish
B. Snail and fresh water mussel
C. Fish and Man
D. Snail and Man
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The liver fluke depends on two intermediate hosts (a snail and a fish) to complete its life cycle (NCERT).

Simplified model of carbon cycle in the biosphere.
Q46.
Which of the following does not constitute the underground store of carbon ?
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. Limestone and Dolomite
B. Oil and Gas
C. Coal
D. $CO_2$
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Underground carbon stores are coal, oil and gas, and limestone/dolomite (sedimentary). CO2 is the atmospheric gaseous form, not an underground store.

Q47.
Which of the following activities decrease the amount of $CO_2$ in atmosphere ?
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. Respiration
B. Photosynthesis
C. Burning of forests
D. Combustion of fossil fuels
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Photosynthesis fixes atmospheric CO2 into organic matter, thereby decreasing CO2. Respiration, burning of forests and combustion of fossil fuels release CO2.

Q48.
Which of the following is another name given to nutrient cycling ?
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. Biological Cycle
B. Biogeological Cycle
C. Biogeochemical Cycle
D. Biochemical Cycle
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Nutrient cycling (movement of nutrients through biotic and abiotic components) is also called the biogeochemical cycle.

Q49.
The amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is regulated by which of the following ?
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. Plants
B. Animals
C. Oceanic reservoir of Carbon
D. Burning of fossil fuels
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The oceans hold a large dissolved reservoir of carbon that buffers and regulates atmospheric CO2 levels (NCERT: oceanic reservoir regulates the amount of CO2 in atmosphere).

Q50.
The amount of nutrients such as carbon etc. present in soil at any specific time is referred to as :
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. Standing Rate
B. Standing State
C. Nutrient Rate
D. Nutrient Value
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The amount of nutrients present in the soil at any given time is called the standing state (NCERT).

Original question paper source: National Testing Agency (NTA), CUET (UG) 2023. Reproduced for educational use. Answers & explanations by UniDrill.