← All previous-year papers

CUET 2023 Geography Question Paper with Answers & Solutions

50 questions with answer key & explanations

Q1.
“Human Geography is the synthetic study of relationship between human societies and earth's surface”. Who said this ?
A. Griffith Taylor
B. Vidal de-la-Blache
C. Ellen C. Semple
D. Ratzel
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

This definition of Human Geography as the synthetic study of relationship between human societies and earth's surface is attributed to Ellen C. Semple in NCERT Class XII Fundamentals of Human Geography.

Q2.
________ School of Thought in Geography is concerned with the different aspects of social well being of the people.
A. Deterministic
B. Humanistic
C. Possibilistic
D. Naturalistic
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The Humanistic school of thought in human geography is concerned with the various aspects of human welfare and social well-being of the people.

Q3.
Military Geography is a sub-field of which field of Human Geography ?
A. Economic Geography
B. Human Geography
C. Political Geography
D. Urban Geography
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Military Geography is a sub-field of Political Geography, which also includes electoral geography. (NCERT Fundamentals of Human Geography, fields of human geography.)

Q4.
Katanga Zambia copper belt is located in :
A. Asia
B. Africa
C. Australia
D. North America
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The Katanga (Congo)–Zambia copper belt is located in Africa, one of the most important copper mining regions of the world.

Q5.
Which one of the following is the main cause of immigration in developed countries ?
A. The climate is pleasant
B. No interference from government
C. The people are helpful
D. Better job opportunities and better quality of life
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

People immigrate to developed countries mainly for better job opportunities and a better quality of life (pull factors). (NCERT Fundamentals of Human Geography, Migration.)

Q6.
The Demographic Transition Theory is used to __________.
A. Measure birth rate of any area
B. Describe and predict the future population of any area
C. Measure death rate of any area
D. Explain emigration of any area
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The Demographic Transition Theory describes population change over time and is used to describe and predict the future population of any area through its stages.

Q7.
Which industry is NOT dependent on any specific raw material ?
A. Cottage Industries
B. Foot Loose Industries
C. Manufacturing Industries
D. Agro-based Industries
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Footloose industries can be located in a wide variety of places as they are not dependent on any specific raw material, having low weight loss and using small quantities of inputs.

Q8.
Many people living in landlocked areas love to spend holidays along the beaches/sea. Which factor of tourist attraction does this represent ?
A. Landscape
B. Art
C. History
D. Cultural
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Climate and landscape are important attractions for tourists; beaches and sea coasts are part of the landscape/physical attraction drawing people from landlocked areas.

Q9.
The spacing between two rails of broad gauge is __________.
A. More than 1.5 meter
B. Less than 1.5 meter
C. More than 1.0 meter
D. Less than 1.44 meter
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Broad gauge in India has a rail spacing of 1.676 metres, which is more than 1.5 metre.

Q10.
Aryabhat was launched in the year __________
A. 1975
B. 1979
C. 1980
D. 1981
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Aryabhata, India's first satellite, was launched in 1975.

Q11.
By supporting developing countries in setting up of capital intensive industries, the industrial nations ensure ________.
A. Their monopoly
B. Markets for their finished products
C. Export of minerals from developing countries
D. Human welfare and ecological balance
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Industrial nations help developing countries set up capital-intensive industries to ensure markets for their finished products (machinery, capital goods).

Q12.
Which city was the first urban settlement to reach a population of one million ?
A. Paris
B. New York
C. Tokyo
D. London
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

London was the first city to reach a population of one million, by about 1810 (NCERT Fundamentals of Human Geography, Human Settlements).

Q13.
The most important problem faced by big cities due to increasing population is ________.
A. Migration towards rural areas
B. Increase in slums and squatter settlement
C. Decline in medical facilities in absolute sense
D. Stagnation of per capita income
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Rapid urban population growth leads to housing shortage and proliferation of slums and squatter settlements, a major urban problem.

Q14.
Which of the following statements about the definition of urban settlements by Census of India are correct ? (A) All places which have municipality, corporation, cantonment board or notified town area committee (B) Minimum population of 5000 persons (C) At least, 50 percent of male workers are engaged in non-agricultural pursuits (D) A density of population of at least 400 persons per square kilometer Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A), (B), (C) only
B. (A), (B), (D) only
C. (B), (C), (D) only
D. (A), (C), (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Census criteria for a town (other than statutory towns): minimum population 5000, at least 75% of male workforce in non-agricultural activities, and density of at least 400 persons/sq km. (A) describes statutory towns separately; the criteria-set answer combining (B), (C), (D) is the intended key. Note the figure of 50% in (C) is what the paper printed; given the options, B,C,D is the correct combination.

Q15.
Which of the given points on History of International Trade are correct ? (A) In ancient times trade was restricted to local markets (B) The silk route is an example of long distance trade (C) Industrialised nations started importing raw materials and exporting finished products (D) Slave trade started after World War I Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A), (B), (D) only
B. (A), (B), (C) only
C. (A), (C), (D) only
D. (B), (C), (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

(A), (B), (C) are correct. (D) is false — slave trade flourished in the 18th-19th centuries (before World Wars), not after World War I. Hence (A), (B), (C) only.

Q16.
Arrange the following technological developments in a chronological order. (A) Information and Computers (B) Development of Agriculture (C) Sanitation and Medical (D) Industrial Development Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (D), (B), (A), (C)
B. (D), (B), (C), (A)
C. (B), (D), (A), (C)
D. (B), (D), (C), (A)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Chronological order: Agriculture (earliest) → Industrial Development → Sanitation and Medical → Information and Computers (latest). This is (B), (D), (C), (A).

Q17.
Arrange the states in a descending order of population density as per 2011 census. (A) Odisha (B) Uttar Pradesh (C) Bihar (D) Mizoram Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (B), (C), (D), (A)
B. (C), (B), (A), (D)
C. (C), (D), (B), (A)
D. (B), (A), (D), (C)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Population densities (2011): Bihar 1106, Uttar Pradesh 829, Odisha 270, Mizoram 52 persons/sq km. Descending order: Bihar > Uttar Pradesh > Odisha > Mizoram = (C), (B), (A), (D).

Q18.
Arrange the following approaches of Human Geography in a chronological order. (A) Spatial Organisation (B) Post-modernism (C) Exploration and Description (D) Areal Differentiation Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (D), (C), (A), (B)
B. (D), (C), (B), (A)
C. (C), (D), (A), (B)
D. (C), (D), (B), (A)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Chronological broad approaches: Exploration and Description (colonial period) → Areal Differentiation (1930s) → Spatial Organisation (1950s-60s) → Post-modernism (1990s). This is (C), (D), (A), (B).

Q19.
Match List - I with List - II. List - I (Pillars of Human Development): (A) Equity (B) Sustainability (C) Productivity (D) Empowerment List - II (Characteristics): (I) Power to make choices (II) Equal access to opportunities (III) Continuity in the availability (IV) Better work efficiency Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
B. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
C. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
D. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Equity = equal access to opportunities (II); Sustainability = continuity in availability (III); Productivity = better work efficiency (IV); Empowerment = power to make choices (I). Hence (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I).

Q20.
Match List - I with List - II. List - I (Approach): (A) Income Approach (B) Welfare Approach (C) Basic Needs Approach (D) Capability Approach List - II (Focus): (I) Focus on provision of basic needs (II) Build human capabilities and access to resources (III) Maximum expenditure on welfare (IV) Human development linked to income Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
B. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
C. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
D. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Income Approach = human development linked to income (IV); Welfare Approach = maximum expenditure on welfare (III); Basic Needs Approach = provision of basic needs (I); Capability Approach = build human capabilities and access to resources (II). Hence (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II).

Q21.
In which environment one can expect the presence of the clustered rural settlements ?
A. Alluvial plains of Ganga River
B. On small hills with farms or pastures on the slope
C. Ridges on the Himalayas
D. Thick forest and Hills of North-East
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Clustered (compact/nucleated) rural settlements are found in fertile alluvial plains such as the Ganga plains, where dense agriculture supports closely built houses.

Q22.
Which one of the following is a cantonment town ?
A. Ambala
B. Raniganj
C. Bhilai
D. Jharia
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Ambala is a cantonment (military) town. Raniganj and Jharia are mining towns; Bhilai is an industrial town.

Q23.
Which one of the following crops is grown in all three cropping seasons in southern states of India ?
A. Maize
B. Jowar
C. Rice
D. Wheat
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

In southern states like Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal, rice is grown in all three cropping seasons (aus, aman, boro).

Q24.
In which of the following river basins, the replenishable utilization of water is the highest ?
A. Tapi
B. Narmada
C. Krishna
D. Mahanadi
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Among the given basins, the Krishna basin has the highest replenishable groundwater utilisation/water utilisation (NCERT India People and Economy, Water resources).

Q25.
Which water development projects is sponsored by Central Government ?
A. Johad scheme
B. Arvary Pani Sansad
C. Neeru Meeru
D. Haryali
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Haryali is a watershed development project sponsored by the Central Government. Neeru-Meeru is an Andhra Pradesh state programme; Johad and Arvary Pani Sansad are community/people's initiatives in Rajasthan.

Q26.
Which one of the following is a metallic mineral ?
A. Copper
B. Limestone
C. Mica
D. Graphite
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Copper is a metallic mineral. Limestone, mica and graphite are non-metallic minerals.

Q27.
The Petrofils Cooperative Limited (PCL), a joint venture of Government of India and Weaver's Cooperative plant is located at :
A. Pinjore
B. Vadodara
C. Lucknow
D. Jodhpur
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The Petrofils Cooperative Limited (PCL), a joint venture of the Government of India and Weavers' Cooperative Societies, has its plant located at Vadodara (Gujarat).

Q28.
The National Highways Authority of India was operationalised in ________.
A. 1995
B. 1993
C. 1992
D. 1990
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) was constituted by an Act in 1988 but became operational in 1995.

Q29.
The roads laid along international boundaries are known as ________.
A. National Roads
B. Border Roads
C. Military Roads
D. Undulating Roads
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Roads constructed along international boundaries are called Border Roads, built and maintained by the Border Roads Organisation.

Q30.
The Indian Railways is divided into how many zones ?
A. 9
B. 12
C. 16
D. 21
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

As per the NCERT Class XII textbook (India People and Economy), Indian Railways is divided into 16 zones.

Q31.
Which one is NOT a cause of water pollution ?
A. Urbanisation
B. Landslides
C. Rainfall
D. Industrialisation
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Rainfall is a natural recharge process and is not a cause of water pollution, whereas urbanisation, landslides and industrialisation contribute to it.

Q32.
Slums are inhabited by which of the following ?
A. Well-off people
B. Higher-middle class
C. Middle class
D. Lower income people
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Slums are residential areas of the least choice, inhabited by lower income people who cannot afford better housing.

Q33.
Arrange the following river basins according to their area in a descending order. (A) Mahanadi basin (B) Tapi basin (C) Ganga basin (D) Godavari basin Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (C), (D), (B), (A)
B. (C), (D), (A), (B)
C. (C), (A), (D), (B)
D. (C), (A), (B), (D)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Basin areas (approx): Ganga ~861000 sq km, Godavari ~313000, Mahanadi ~142000, Tapi ~65000 sq km. Descending order: Ganga > Godavari > Mahanadi > Tapi = (C), (D), (A), (B).

Q34.
Arrange the given historical developments in radio broadcasting in India in a chronological order. (A) Akashwani (B) All India Radio (C) Radio broadcasting brought under the Indian broadcasting system (D) Radio broadcasting started Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (D), (B), (C), (A)
B. (D), (C), (B), (A)
C. (D), (A), (B), (C)
D. (D), (A), (C), (B)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Radio broadcasting started (1923) → brought under Indian Broadcasting system/Indian State Broadcasting Service (1930) → named All India Radio (1936) → known as Akashvani (1957). This is (D), (C), (B), (A).

Q35.
Which of the following characteristics of rainwater harvesting are correct ? (A) It is a method to capture and store rainwater (B) It is complicated and requires huge finances (C) It is an eco-friendly technique (D) It can be done by harvesting rainwater on rooftops and open spaces Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A), (B) and (C) Only
B. (A), (C) and (D) Only
C. (B), (C) and (D) Only
D. (A), (B) and (D) Only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Rainwater harvesting captures and stores rainwater (A), is eco-friendly (C), and can be done on rooftops/open spaces (D). (B) is false as it is simple and low-cost. Hence (A), (C), (D) only.

Q36.
Which of the following causes of establishing Iron and Steel Industries in West Bengal, Odisha and Jharkhand are correct ? (A) Availability of water from rivers (B) Availability of high grade iron ore (C) Availability of forest resources (D) Availability of coal for fuel in the proximity Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A), (B), (D) Only
B. (A), (B), (C) Only
C. (A), (C), (D) Only
D. (B), (C), (D) Only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Iron and steel plants in this region are located due to availability of water from rivers (A), high grade iron ore (B) and coal (coking coal) in proximity (D). Forest resources (C) are not a primary cause. Hence (A), (B), (D) only.

Q37.
Which of the following points about roles and responsibilities of Border Road Organisation are correct ? (A) Construction of roads in high altitude areas (B) Maintenance of roads in strategically sensitive areas (C) Snow clearance from high altitude roads (D) Maintenance of rural roads in plain areas Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A), (B), (D) Only
B. (A), (C), (D) Only
C. (B), (C), (D) Only
D. (A), (B), (C) Only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

The Border Roads Organisation constructs roads in high altitude/strategic border areas (A), maintains roads in strategically sensitive areas (B) and clears snow on high altitude roads (C). Maintenance of rural roads in plains (D) is not its role. Hence (A), (B), (C) only.

Q38.
Match the Industry type and basis on which it is (how it is) classified List - I (Basis of Classification): (A) Ownership (B) Capital investment (C) Use of their products (D) Raw materials used by them List - II (Category): (I) Consumer goods (II) Mineral based (III) Private sector (IV) Cottage industry Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
B. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
C. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
D. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Ownership = Private sector (III); Capital investment = Cottage industry (IV); Use of their products = Consumer goods (I); Raw materials used = Mineral based (II). Hence (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II).

Q39.
Match List - I with List - II : List - I (Ports): (A) Ennore (B) Paradwip (C) Kandla (D) Kochchi List - II (States): (I) Odisha (II) Tamil Nadu (III) Kerala (IV) Gujarat Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
B. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
C. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
D. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Ennore = Tamil Nadu (II); Paradwip = Odisha (I); Kandla = Gujarat (IV); Kochi = Kerala (III). Hence (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III).

Q40.
Match List - I with List - II : List - I (Pollution Types): (A) Air Pollution (B) Water Pollution (C) Land Pollution (D) Noise Pollution List - II (Sources of Pollution): (I) Use of pesticides (II) Advertising media (III) Combustion of coal (IV) Effluents from industries Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
B. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
C. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
D. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Air Pollution = combustion of coal (III); Water Pollution = effluents from industries (IV); Land Pollution = use of pesticides (I); Noise Pollution = advertising media (II). Hence (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II).

Concept of High Technology Industry. High technology, or simply high-tech, is the latest generation of manufacturing activities. It is best understood as the application of intensive research and development (R and D) efforts leading to the manufacture of products of an advanced scientific and engineering character. Professional (white collar) workers make up a large share of the total workforce. These highly skilled specialists greatly outnumber the actual production (blue collar) workers. Robotics on the assembly line, computer-aided design (CAD) and manufacturing, electronic controls of smelting and refining processes, and the constant development of new chemical and pharmaceutical products are notable examples of a high-tech industry. Neatly spaced, low, modern, dispersed, office-plant-lab buildings rather than massive assembly structures, factories and storage areas mark the high-tech industrial landscape. Planned business parks for high-tech start-ups have become part of regional and local development schemes. High-tech industries which are regionally concentrated, self-sustained and highly specialised are called technopolies. The Silicon Valley near San Francisco and Silicon Forest near Seattle are examples of technopolies. Are some technopolies developing in India ?
Q41.
High Technology Manufacturing Industries are example of ________.
A. Primary Activities
B. Secondary Activities
C. Tertiary Activities
D. Quaternary Activities
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

High technology is described in the passage as 'the latest generation of manufacturing activities'. Manufacturing falls under secondary activities.

Q42.
Manufacturing of advanced scientific products is possible with the application of :
A. Research and development
B. Retrofitting
C. Traditional techniques
D. More unskilled workforce
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The passage states high-tech is 'the application of intensive research and development (R and D) efforts leading to the manufacture of products of an advanced scientific and engineering character'.

Q43.
Which workers make up large share of the total workforce in these industries ?
A. Blue collar
B. White collar
C. Gold collar
D. Pink collar
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The passage states 'Professional (white collar) workers make up a large share of the total workforce.'

Q44.
Which of the following is NOT an example of high tech industry ?
A. Robotics
B. Pharmaceutical products
C. Paper industry
D. Computer Aided Designs
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The passage lists robotics, CAD and chemical/pharmaceutical products as examples of high-tech industry. Paper industry is a traditional resource-based industry, not high-tech.

Q45.
Regionally concentrated, self sustained and highly specialised High Tech Industries are known as ________.
A. Technopolies
B. Foot Loose Industries
C. Megalopolis
D. Conurbation
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The passage states: 'High-tech industries which are regionally concentrated, self-sustained and highly specialised are called technopolies.'

Study the given diagram and answer the following question. Two pie diagrams showing reasons for migration by last residence, India 2011. Diagram 1 (Reasons for Male Migration): Moved with Household 34%, Work Employment 24%, Business 2%, Education 2%, Marriage 4%, Moved after Birth 14%, Others 20%. Diagram 2 (Reasons for Female Migration): Marriage 66%, Moved with Household 14%, Moved after Birth 12%, Work Employment 4%, Education 2%, Business 1%, Others ~1%.
Q46.
Which is the leading cause of male migration in India ?
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. Marriage
B. Business
C. Education
D. Work employment
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Among the listed options (marriage, business, education, work employment), work employment at 24% is the highest reason for male migration. (Moved with household at 34% is higher but is not an option.)

Q47.
Which is the leading cause of female migration in India ?
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. Education
B. Business
C. Marriage
D. Work employment
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

In the female migration pie diagram, Marriage at 66% is by far the leading cause of female migration in India.

Q48.
The diagram used to represent the relative share of reasons of migration is know as ________.
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. Percentage bar diagram
B. Pie diagram
C. Proportional circle diagram
D. Flow diagram
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

A circle divided into sectors to show relative shares/percentages is a pie diagram (divided circle diagram).

Q49.
Which one of the following represents the percentage share of male migration due to education reason ?
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. 2%
B. 34%
C. 1%
D. 14%
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

In the male migration pie diagram, the Education sector accounts for 2%.

Q50.
The percentage share for different reasons of female migration is calculated by dividing number of associated female migrants with ________.
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. Total population of India
B. Total female population
C. Total female migrants of India
D. Total migrants of India
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The percentage share for each reason of female migration is computed as (number of female migrants for that reason / total female migrants of India) × 100.

Original question paper source: National Testing Agency (NTA), CUET (UG) 2023. Reproduced for educational use. Answers & explanations by UniDrill.