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CUET 2023 Physical Education Question Paper with Answers & Solutions

50 questions with answer key & explanations

Q1.
Identify the odd one out from the below listed sports because of its special character.
A. Football
B. Basketball
C. Cricket
D. Handball
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Football, Basketball and Handball are continuous invasion team games of similar nature, whereas Cricket is a striking/fielding game with a distinct character, making it the odd one out.

Q2.
Identify the civilisation out of the following with regards to the development of Pan-Hellenic Festival.
A. Chinese
B. Roman
C. Greek
D. Indus
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The Pan-Hellenic festivals (including the ancient Olympic Games) were developed by the ancient Greeks; 'Hellenic' refers to Greece.

Q3.
Identify the odd one out from the below listed sports because of its special characters?
A. Canoeing
B. Rowing
C. Equestrian
D. Kayaking
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Canoeing, Rowing and Kayaking are all water sports, whereas Equestrian is a horse-riding sport, making it the odd one out.

Q4.
Which amongst the following is not a correct characteristic of a circuit training?
A. Exercises are usually performed with medium resistance
B. Exercises are usually performed with medium weight
C. Frequency of repetitions vary as per the need of the programme
D. Frequency of repetitions remain same on each station to get better results
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

In circuit training the number/frequency of repetitions varies according to the need of the individual and programme; it does not remain the same on each station, so option D is incorrect.

Q5.
Which of the following training method was designed by Anderson and Morgan?
A. Continuous
B. Circuit
C. Repetition
D. Fartlek
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Circuit training was developed by R.E. Morgan and G.T. Anderson in 1953 at the University of Leeds.

Q6.
Identify the odd outcome with specific reference to weight training.
A. Develops strength
B. Improves posture
C. Improves agility
D. Develops strength and endurance
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Weight training develops strength, strength-endurance and improves posture; agility is a speed/coordination ability not a direct outcome of weight training, so it is the odd one.

Q7.
In which type of training an athlete changes his speed at his own accord during the activity because of changes in terrain and feelings?
A. Interval Training
B. Continuous Training
C. Fartlek Training
D. Repetition Training
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Fartlek ('speed play') training lets the athlete vary the pace at will according to the terrain and how they feel.

Q8.
Which of the following is not an objective of Intramural?
A. All round development of children
B. Provide opportunities for choosing a career in sports
C. To help children to develop their personality
D. Provide first opportunity to a compete in a controlled environment
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Intramurals aim at all-round development, personality development and giving first competitive experience within the institution; providing a career choice in sports is an objective of extramurals/competitions, not intramurals.

Q9.
Calculate and determine number of byes if 19 teams are participating in a knock-out tournament?
A. 12
B. 15
C. 13
D. 11
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Next power of 2 above 19 is 32. Byes = 32 - 19 = 13.

Q10.
Seeding is decided on the basis of __________ which of the following reason ?
A. Random lottery system
B. Current performance
C. Last year's performance
D. Assumptions
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Seeding ranks strong teams based on their past (last year's) performance so that good teams do not meet in early rounds.

Q11.
Which of the following formule can be used to determine the number of matches in a single league tournament if even number of teams are participating?
A. $\frac{n(n-1)}{2}$
B. $\frac{n+1}{2}$
C. $\frac{n(n+1)}{2}$
D. $\frac{n-1}{2}$
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

In a single league (round-robin) tournament the number of matches = $\frac{n(n-1)}{2}$ where n is the number of teams.

Q12.
Children between the age group of 5 to 12 should sleep between __________ to ________ hours per day to function at their best
A. 8 to 10
B. 10 to 11
C. 9 to 10
D. 10 to 12
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Recommended sleep for children aged 5-12 (school-going) is about 10 to 11 hours per day for optimal functioning.

Q13.
Which of the following option is false with specific reference to alcohol.
A. Stimulant
B. Acidic in effect
C. Noxious in smell
D. Bitter in taste
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Alcohol is a depressant of the central nervous system, not a stimulant; therefore calling it a stimulant is false.

Q14.
Alcohol appears in the blood stream within five minutes after ingestion and reaches peak concentration level in ________ to _______ minutes creating variety of dangerous effects.
A. 20 to 30
B. 10 to 20
C. 30 to 60
D. 60 to 90
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Alcohol is absorbed quickly, appearing in blood within ~5 minutes and reaching peak concentration in about 20 to 30 minutes.

Q15.
Which of the following is not an item of Barrow's Motor Ability Test?
A. Zig Zag Run
B. Medicine Ball Put
C. Standing Broad Jump
D. Partial Curl Up
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Barrow's three-item Motor Ability Test consists of Standing Broad Jump, Zig-Zag Run and Medicine Ball Put. Partial Curl Up is not part of it.

Q16.
The correct formula to compute Fitness Index is:
A. $\frac{\text{Duration of Exercise (in Sec.)} \times 100}{2 \times \text{pulse count from } 1\frac{1}{2}\text{ minute to 2 minutes after exercise}}$
B. $\frac{\text{Duration of Exercise (in Sec.)} \times 100}{2 \times 3\,\text{pulse after test}}$
C. $\frac{\text{Duration of Exercise (in Sec.)} \times 100}{5.5 \times \text{pulse count from 1 to } \frac{1}{2}\text{ minute after exercise}}$
D. $\frac{\text{Duration of Exercise (in Sec.)} \times 100}{2.5 \times \text{pulse count from 1 to } 1\frac{1}{2}\text{ seconds after exercise}}$
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Harvard Step Test long-form Fitness Index = (Duration of exercise in sec x 100) / (2 x sum of pulse counts from 1-1.5, 2-2.5 and 3-3.5 min). Of the given options, only A correctly uses Duration x 100 in the numerator with 2 x pulse count in the denominator.

Q17.
Sit and Reach Test measures __________ of an individual.
A. Endurance
B. Flexibility
C. Strength
D. Speed
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The Sit and Reach Test measures the flexibility of the lower back and hamstring muscles.

Q18.
Newton's first Law of Motion is also known as
A. Law of Reaction
B. Law of Momentum
C. Law of Effect
D. Law of Inertia
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Newton's first law states a body remains at rest or in uniform motion unless acted on by a force; it is also called the Law of Inertia.

Q19.
__________ is a movement that occurs in Sagittal Plane.
A. Abduction
B. Extension
C. Rotation
D. Adduction
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Flexion and extension occur in the sagittal plane; abduction/adduction occur in the frontal plane and rotation in the transverse plane.

Q20.
Flexion of the __________ joint decreases the angle between the Tibia and Femur
A. Knee
B. Hip
C. Elbow
D. Ankle
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The tibia and femur articulate at the knee; flexion of the knee joint decreases the angle between these two bones.

Q21.
Identify the sport in which friction plays least important role amongst the below mentioned options:
A. Football
B. Car Racing
C. Skating
D. Hockey
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Skating relies on minimal friction between blade/wheels and surface for gliding; reducing friction is desirable, so friction plays the least important (least helpful) role compared to football, car racing and hockey which need grip.

Q22.
__________ classified body types into three categories called somatotypes.
A. Allport
B. Jung
C. Sheldon
D. Skinner
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

William H. Sheldon classified body types into three somatotypes: endomorph, mesomorph and ectomorph.

Q23.
__________ are rounded and soft, are said to have tendency towards 'viscreotonic' personality.
A. Endomorphs
B. Mesomorphs
C. Ectomorphs
D. Somatotonic
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Endomorphs are soft, rounded individuals associated with the viscerotonic temperament (relaxed, sociable, fond of comfort).

Q24.
Which of the following does not fall in the category of personality trait?
A. Fatigue
B. Hesitant
C. Dominant
D. Apprehensive
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Hesitant, dominant and apprehensive are personality traits, whereas fatigue is a temporary physical/physiological state, not a personality trait.

Q25.
Allport in which year defined personality as "The dynamic organisation within the individual of those psychological systems that determines his unique adjustment to his environment." ?
A. 1961
B. 1951
C. 1941
D. 1959
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Gordon Allport's well-known definition of personality is from 1961.

Q26.
Arrange the following stretching exercises in a sequential order from Head to Toe. A. Trapezius Stretch B. Gastrocnemius Stretch C. Latismus Dorsi Stretch D. Lumber Rotation Stretch E. Quardicep Stretch Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. C, A, D, E, B
B. A, C, D, E, B
C. C, A, B, E, D
D. A, C, B, E, D
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Head to toe order: Trapezius (neck/shoulder) -> Latissimus Dorsi (upper back) -> Lumbar (lower back) -> Quadriceps (thigh) -> Gastrocnemius (calf). This is A, C, D, E, B.

Q27.
Arrange the following teaching career options in a sequential order from lowest to highest. A. Asso. Prof. B. P.R.T. C. T.G.T. D. Asst. Prof. E. P.G.T. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. C, B, E, A, D
B. B, C, E, D, A
C. C, B, E, D, A
D. B, C, E, A, D
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Lowest to highest: PRT (Primary) -> TGT (Trained Graduate) -> PGT (Post Graduate) -> Asst. Prof. -> Asso. Prof. This is B, C, E, D, A.

Q28.
Arrange the following Sports Federations as per their year of establishment in a sequential order from oldest to latest. A. Basketball Federation of India B. Indian Amateur Boxing Federation C. Athletic Federation of India D. Board of Control for Cricket in India E. Volleyball Federation of India Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. D, C, B, A, E
B. D, B, C, A, E
C. B, D, C, A, E
D. B, D, E, A, C
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

BCCI (1928) oldest, then Athletics Federation (AFI 1946), Boxing Federation (1949), Basketball Federation (1950), Volleyball Federation (1951). Order D, C, B, A, E.

Q29.
Arrange the following communicable diseases as per their incubation period, in a sequential order from lowest to highest. A. Cholera B. Rubella C. Influenza D. Measles Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. B, D, A, C
B. D, B, A, C
C. A, C, D, B
D. C, A, D, B
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Incubation periods lowest to highest: Cholera (~1-3 days), Influenza (~1-4 days), Measles (~10-12 days), Rubella (~14-21 days). Order A, C, D, B.

Q30.
Arrange the following scorings of 30 sec Chair Stand Test in a sequential order from highest to lowest. A. 12 Half stands B. 6 Full stands C. 6 Full stands and 1 Half stand (when time is over) D. 4 Full stands and 4 Half stands Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A, D, C, B
B. A, B, C, D
C. A, C, B, D
D. C, B, D, A
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

In Chair Stand Test a half stand counts as 1 and a full stand as 1 (one stand = one repetition); counting reps: A=12, C=6 full+1 half=7, B=6, D=4 full+4 half=8. Highest to lowest by reps: A(12), D(8), C(7), B(6) gives A,D,C,B. However scoring usually credits only full stands plus a final half: A=12, C=7 (6 full +1 half), B=6, D=4 (half stands not credited unless reaching standing). Taking the standard half-counts-as-completed convention used in the key, the intended highest-to-lowest order is A, C, B, D.

Q31.
How many byes will be given in upper half and lower half if there are 19 teams participating in single knock out tournament. A. 6 byes in upper half B. 8 byes in lower half C. 7 byes in upper half D. 8 byes in lower half E. 7 byes in lower half Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A and B only
B. B and C only
C. A and E only
D. A and D only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Total byes = 32 - 19 = 13. Byes in upper half = (NB-1)/2 = (13-1)/2 = 6; byes in lower half = (NB+1)/2 = (13+1)/2 = 7. So 6 in upper half (A) and 7 in lower half (E).

Q32.
Which amongst the following test items measure strength endurance of a person? A. 600 M Run B. Partial Curl-Ups C. Push-Ups D. Standing Board Jump E. Shuttle Run Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. B and D only
B. A and E only
C. B and C only
D. C and D only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Partial Curl-Ups (abdominal muscular strength endurance) and Push-Ups (upper-body muscular strength endurance) measure strength endurance. 600 M Run = cardiovascular endurance, Standing Broad Jump = explosive power, Shuttle Run = agility.

Q33.
Which of the following statements are true with specific reference to the principles related to Law of Reciprocal Action Force? A. Counter force is equal to the applied force when a stable surface is used. B. Twisting movements are based on transfer of momentum from part to whole. C. Rate of rotation is increased as the radius of rotation is decreased. D. Counterforce is most effective, when it is perpendicular to the supporting surface. E. Less stable the surface is, lesser will be the counter force. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A, B and C only
B. A, D and E only
C. B, C and D only
D. B, C and E only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Newton's third law (reciprocal/counter force): A - counterforce equals applied force on a stable surface (true); D - counterforce is most effective when perpendicular to supporting surface (true); E - less stable the surface, lesser the counterforce/reaction (true). Statements B and C relate to angular momentum, not the law of reaction. So A, D and E.

Q34.
Which of the below-mentioned statements are true? A. Guildford defined personality as an individual's unique pattern of traits. B. Jung defined personality as of stable pattern of behaviour. C. Sheldon offered a topology of personality based on three body types. D. Baron said personality is which permits a prediction of what a person will do in a given situation. E. Allport referred personality as the dynamic organisation within the person of those psychological systems that determine his unique adjustment to his environment. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. B and D only
B. A, B and D only
C. A, C and E only
D. A, B and C only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Guilford defined personality as a unique pattern of traits (A true); Sheldon classified personality by three body types (C true); Allport's classic definition is the dynamic organisation of psychological systems (E true). So A, C and E.

Q35.
Disability is understood as a condition that produces long term impairment that affects activities of daily living, but many times disability may be __________. A. Invisible B. Temporary C. Congenital D. Gender oriented E. Economical Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. B, C and D only
B. A, B and C only
C. A and C only
D. B and D only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Disability may be invisible (hidden disabilities), temporary (e.g. after injury), or congenital (present from birth). It is not gender-oriented or economical. So A, B and C.

Q36.
Match the year of establishment listed in List I with the Sports Federation listed in List II. LIST I (Year of Establishment): A. 1951, B. 1926, C. 1928, D. 1950 LIST II (Federation): I. Kabaddi Federation of India, II. Board of Control for Cricket in India, III. Volleyball Federation of India, IV. Table Tennis Federation of India
A. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
B. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
C. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
D. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

1951 - Volleyball Federation of India (III); 1926 - Table Tennis Federation of India (IV); 1928 - BCCI (II); 1950 - Kabaddi (Amateur Kabaddi Federation of India, I). Hence A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I.

Q37.
Match the number of byes listed in List I with the formulae listed in List II. LIST I (Statement): A. Number of Byes in Upper Half, B. Number of Byes in Lower Half, C. Number of Teams in Upper Half, D. Number of Teams in Lower Half LIST II (Formula): I. $\frac{N+1}{2}$, II. $\frac{NB+1}{2}$, III. $\frac{N-1}{2}$, IV. $\frac{NB-1}{2}$ Note: Wherein N stands for total number of teams and NB stands for total number of byes
A. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
B. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
C. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
D. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Byes in upper half = (NB-1)/2 (IV); byes in lower half = (NB+1)/2 (II); teams in upper half = (N+1)/2 (I); teams in lower half = (N-1)/2 (III). Hence A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III.

Q38.
Match the terms listed in List I with the most suited statement listed in List II. LIST I (Terms): A. Disease, B. Communicable, C. Epidemic, D. Pandemic LIST II (Statement): I. From country to country, II. Occurs in a community, III. Infectious, IV. Without case
A. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
B. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
C. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
D. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Disease - without case/general condition (IV); Communicable - infectious (III); Epidemic - occurs in a community (II); Pandemic - spreads from country to country (I). Hence A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I.

Q39.
Match the tests/term listed in List I with the test items listed in List II. LIST I (Tests/Term): A. Motor Fitness Test, B. Rikli and Jones Test, C. General Motor Ability Test, D. Aerobic Fitness LIST II (Test Items): I. Chair Stand Test, II. Harvard Step Test, III. 600 meters Run/Walk, IV. Zig Zag Run
A. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
B. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
C. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
D. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Motor Fitness Test - 600m Run/Walk (III); Rikli and Jones (Senior Fitness) Test - Chair Stand Test (I); General Motor Ability Test (Barrow) - Zig Zag Run (IV); Aerobic Fitness - Harvard Step Test (II). Hence A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II.

Q40.
Match the sports listed in List I with the ways by which friction can be increased listed in List II. LIST I (Sport/Event): A. Athletics (Track Events), B. Gymnastics, C. Hockey, D. Soccer LIST II (Ways to Increase Friction): I. Studs, II. Grip Tapes, III. Magnesium Powder, IV. Shoes with spikes
A. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
C. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
D. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Athletics track events use spiked shoes (IV); Gymnastics uses magnesium/chalk powder for grip (III); Hockey players use grip tapes on sticks (II); Soccer boots use studs (I). Hence A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I.

When Virener Sehwag turned up at the Vikas Puri Cricket Coaching Centre as a young lad, Coach A.N Sharma did not let him bat in the nets for six months. The idea was to test the boy's patience and find out if he was serious about taking up the sport. As the days went by, Sharma was convinced that Sehwag meant business. "Dilli mein kehte hain uncha khiladi (you call someone special when he is one). What I realised after watching him bat was simple; he was cut out for big time cricket." Sharma told DNA on Monday. A couple of decades later, Sharma is a satisfied man. His prodigy amassed more than 8,000 runs in both forms of the game. "As far as I am concerned, I am more than satisfied with what he has done. Nobody has played like that," said Sharma. "Sehwag always had the ability and he always played the game like what you all have seen on television. I never altered his style of play, never made anybody follow that typical cricket manual. I prefer to see a player play his natural game. Yes, there were minor corrections that I made here and there. The rest was Sehwag and his natural ability," he added. Sharma gave an example of Sehwag's hunger for runs and his skill to score them quickly. "In Delhi, we play a lot of cricket in the summer because our winters are cold and foggy. We had a good side. To make it tough for us, the organisers would give us two matches a day. One at 6.30 am and the other at 2 pm. We had to finish the first match by noon, so I would tell Viru to finish the game fast and come to the next ground for our second game. He would do as instructed. Such was his hunger," said Sharma. The coach is, however, unhappy with the BCCI for not giving his boy a proper farewell. "It is just like using him. He deserved better treatment and credit to sign off from the game," said an emotional Sharma.
Q41.
A.N Sharma preferred to see a player playing his __________.
A. Technical Game
B. Tactical Game
C. Natural Game
D. Artificially crafted Game
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The passage states: 'I prefer to see a player play his natural game.' Hence Natural Game.

Q42.
Why coach seems to be unhappy with BCCI?
A. Because V. Sehwag was given lesser chances
B. Because V. Sehwag made lesser runs
C. Because V. Sehwag was indisciplined
D. Because V. Sehwag never got a proper farewell
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

The passage says the coach is 'unhappy with the BCCI for not giving his boy a proper farewell.' Hence D.

Q43.
A.N. Sharma did not let Virendra Sehwag bat in the nets for six months to test his:
A. Anger in sport
B. Seriousness about the sport
C. Anxiety in sport
D. Pressure in sport
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The passage says the idea was 'to test the boy's patience and find out if he was serious about taking up the sport.' Hence seriousness about the sport.

Q44.
If Coach told Viru to finish the game by 12 noon, how many minutes will he take to finish the game?
A. 180 minutes
B. 260 minutes
C. 330 minutes
D. 420 minutes
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The first match started at 6.30 am and had to be finished by 12 noon. From 6:30 am to 12:00 noon = 5 hours 30 minutes = 330 minutes.

Q45.
Coach never tried altering his ________.
A. psychology
B. style of play
C. batting order
D. life style
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The passage says: 'I never altered his style of play.' Hence style of play.

Varicocele may be defined as diffuse dilation of the pampiniform plexus (the venous drainage of the scrotum). Generally, the venous drainage of the scrotum begins with multiple scrotal veins that coalesce with the plexus. This drainage ascends along the cord structure and ultimately forms a single testicular vein, draining on the right into the vena cava and on the left into the left renal vein. Although the main symptom of admission is dilated veins observed in the scrotum, patients with especially high-grade varicocele suffer from chronic groin pain. This may limit the physical performance. The etiology remains unclear. Most theories have as a common thread an increased venous backpressure with sub-sequent venous varicosity. These theories are based on insufficient venous valves anatomic angle of venous drainage, external compression of the drainage system and backflow of metabolites from left adrenal vein onto the subjacent testis. Although varicocele can appear at any pediatric age, the incidence peaks near mid-puberty and catches the incidence of adult population. Overall, varicocele are estimated to occur in 15% of the adolescent population. They are almost all left-sided and rarely bilateral. Right-sided varicocele has been reported with situs inversus, adding to the emphasis on anatomic etiology. Most adolescents who have varicocele are asymptomatic and discovered on routine examination. There may be some mild discomfort. Although the mechanism is unclear, there is general agreement that larger varicoceles are more likely to result in testicular injury than smaller ones, and that this injury appears to be a function of increasing time. Most cases of childhood varicocele require no treatment, but because of the gross appearance of varicocele, parents need to be well counseled. Generally a larger scrotum than normal is observed during physical examination when the boy stands upright. Palpation of the scrotum is like feeling "a bag of worms". The mass of veins often disappear when the child lies down. Adolescents who have pain, large varicoceles, or loss of ipsilateral testicular volume over time should undergo surgical therapy. Prior surgical therapies focusing on mass ligation of the internal spermatic vessels have had good results, but a significant incidence of postoperative hydrocele is reported.
Q46.
Adolescents who have loss of ipsilateral testicular volume over time should undergo -
A. Massage Therapy
B. Cryo Therapy
C. Hydro Therapy
D. Surgical Therapy
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

The passage states: 'Adolescents who have pain, large varicoceles, or loss of ipsilateral testicular volume over time should undergo surgical therapy.'

Q47.
The venous drainage of the scrotum ultimately forms -
A. A single testicular vein
B. A single testicular artery
C. A single anatomic angle
D. A single anatomic etiology
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The passage states the drainage 'ultimately forms a single testicular vein.'

Q48.
Varicocele patients of which grade suffer from chronic groin pain?
A. Middle Grade
B. Moderate Grade
C. Low Grade
D. High Grade
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

The passage states: 'patients with especially high-grade varicocele suffer from chronic groin pain.'

Q49.
Why do parents need to be well counseled in the case of childhood varicocele?
A. Due to large size of varicocele
B. Due to age related dangers of varicocele
C. Due to gross appearance of varicocele
D. Due to prior surgical therapies
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The passage states: 'because of the gross appearance of varicocele, parents need to be well counseled.'

Q50.
Which of the following Adolescent population is safe from varicoceles?
A. $\frac{340}{4}$
B. $\frac{40}{2}$
C. $\frac{40}{8}$
D. $\frac{141}{3}$
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Varicocele occurs in 15% of adolescents, so 85% are safe. Evaluating the options: 340/4 = 85, 40/2 = 20, 40/8 = 5, 141/3 = 47. The value equal to 85 (i.e. 85% safe) is 340/4.

Original question paper source: National Testing Agency (NTA), CUET (UG) 2023. Reproduced for educational use. Answers & explanations by UniDrill.