____________ is a market where economic agents can freely exchange their endowments with each other.
A. Market economy ✓
B. Centrally planned economy
C. Aggregate demand based economy
D. Aggregate supply based economy
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A
A market economy is one where economic agents (consumers and firms) can freely exchange their endowments/commodities with each other through markets, with minimal government interference.
Q2.
Which of the following are correct statements ?
(A) Marginal Utility is the change in Total Utility due to consumption of one additional unit of commodity.
(B) Two Indifference Curves intersect each other.
(C) Marginal Utility becomes Zero at a level when Total Utility remains constant.
(D) Diminishing Marginal Rate of Substitution does not affect Indifference Curve.
(E) Indifference Curve slopes downwards from left to right.
A. (A), (B) and (E) only
B. (A), (C) and (E) only ✓
C. (A), (D) and (E) only
D. (B), (D) and (E) only
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
(A) is correct: MU = change in TU per additional unit. (C) is correct: MU = 0 when TU is maximum/constant. (E) is correct: indifference curves slope downward left to right. (B) is wrong (two ICs never intersect) and (D) is wrong (diminishing MRS gives the IC its convex shape). So (A), (C) and (E) only.
Q3.
Match List-I with List-II :
List-I (Characteristic): (A) Equilibrium, (B) Excess supply, (C) Inferior good, (D) Price ceiling
List-II (Implication): (I) Plans of all the consumers and firms in the market match, (II) Demand decreases with an increase in income, (III) Supply is greater than market demand, (IV) Imposition of upper limit by government
Equilibrium = plans of all consumers and firms match (I). Excess supply = supply greater than demand (III). Inferior good = demand falls as income rises (II). Price ceiling = government-imposed upper limit (IV). So A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV.
Q4.
When Elasticity of Demand Curve is 1 at every point on the Demand Curve, this curve is known as :
A. Perfectly inelastic demand curve
B. Perfectly elastic demand curve
C. Rectangular Hyperbola ✓
D. Greater than unitary demand curve
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
A demand curve with unitary elasticity (e=1) at every point is a rectangular hyperbola, where expenditure (P×Q) is constant along the curve.
Q5.
According to the Theory of Consumer Behaviour, Inequality $p_1x_1 + p_2x_2 \leq M$ is called the Consumer's ____________ .
A. Budget
B. Budget Set
C. Budget Constraint ✓
D. Budget Behaviour
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
The inequality $p_1x_1 + p_2x_2 \leq M$ represents all bundles the consumer can afford and is termed the budget constraint. (The set of all affordable bundles is the budget set, but the inequality itself is the budget constraint per NCERT.)
Q6.
Choose the correct statements from the following :
(A) Adam Smith is termed as Father of Modern Economics.
(B) J.M. Keynes gave the Theory of Income, Output and Employment.
(C) Four Sector Model = C + I + G + (X – M)
(D) Store of value is primary function of money.
A. (A), (B) and (D) only
B. (A), (B) and (C) only ✓
C. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
D. (B), (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
(A) Adam Smith is the Father of Economics, (B) Keynes gave the theory of income, output and employment, (C) four-sector model = C+I+G+(X−M) are correct. (D) is wrong: store of value is a secondary/derivative function of money; the primary function is medium of exchange. So (A), (B) and (C) only.
Q7.
Rearrange the given statements in proper chronological sequence in an ascending order (earliest to latest) :
(A) General theory of Employment, Interest and Money by Keynes.
(B) Mahalanobis was made a fellow of Britain's Royal Society.
(C) An Inquiry into the Nature and Cause of the Wealth of Nations by Adam Smith.
(D) The Economic Consequences of the Peace by Keynes.
A. (C), (D), (A), (B) ✓
B. (A), (B), (C), (D)
C. (A), (C), (B), (D)
D. (D), (A), (C), (B)
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A
Wealth of Nations (C) = 1776; Economic Consequences of the Peace (D) = 1919; General Theory (A) = 1936; Mahalanobis FRS (B) = 1945. Ascending order: (C), (D), (A), (B).
Q8.
If there is no government and no foreign trade, then :
A. G = T = M = X > 1
B. G = T = M = X = 1
C. G = T = M = X = 0 ✓
D. G = T = M = X < 1
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
With no government there are no government expenditure (G) and taxes (T); with no foreign trade there are no imports (M) and exports (X). Hence G = T = M = X = 0.
Q9.
The value of Nominal GDP is $ 1100 and the value of Real GDP is $ 1000. Find the value of GDP deflator.
A. 0.9
B. 1.1 ✓
C. 1
D. 0.8
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
GDP deflator = Nominal GDP / Real GDP = 1100/1000 = 1.1.
Q10.
Identify the correct statements :
(A) Stocks are defined over a period of time.
(B) Flows are defined over a period of time.
(C) Flows are defined at a particular point of time.
(D) Stocks are defined at a particular point of time.
(E) GVA at factor costs + Indirect Taxes – Subsidies = GVA at market prices.
A. (A), (C) and (E) only
B. (B), (C) and (D) only
C. (B), (D) and (E) only ✓
D. (C), (D) and (E) only
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
Flows are measured over a period of time (B correct); stocks are measured at a point of time (D correct); GVA at FC + Indirect Taxes − Subsidies = GVA at MP (E correct). (A) and (C) reverse the definitions. So (B), (D) and (E) only.
Q11.
If the supply of final goods is assumed to be infinitely elastic at constant price over a short period of time, Aggregate output is determined solely by the value of Aggregate demand. This is called ____________ Principle.
A. Aggregate supply
B. Aggregate demand
C. Effective demand ✓
D. Perfectly inelastic demand
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
When supply is infinitely elastic at constant price, output is determined solely by aggregate demand. This is Keynes's Effective Demand Principle.
Q12.
Nominal Interest Rate = ____________
A. Real Interest Rate × Inflation Rate
B. Real Interest Rate – Inflation rate
C. Real Interest Rate / Inflation rate
D. Real Interest Rate + Inflation rate ✓
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D
By the Fisher relation, Nominal Interest Rate = Real Interest Rate + Inflation Rate.
Q13.
Value of MPS (Marginal Propensity to Save) is increased from 0.4 to 0.5. What would be the impact on Multiplier ?
A. The size of the multiplier would be increased.
B. The size of the multiplier would remain same.
C. Value of multiplier is undetermined with the given information.
D. The size of the multiplier would be decreased. ✓
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D
Multiplier = 1/MPS. At MPS=0.4, multiplier=2.5; at MPS=0.5, multiplier=2. An increase in MPS decreases the multiplier.
Q14.
Paradox of Thrift means :
A. If all the people of the economy increase the proportion of income they save, the total value of investment in the economy will not increase, it will either decline or remain unchanged.
B. If all the people of the economy increase the proportion of income they spend, the total value of savings in the economy will not increase, it will either decline or remain unchanged.
C. If all the people of the economy decrease the proportion of income they save, the total value of savings in the economy will not increase, it will either decline or remain unchanged.
D. If all the people of the economy increase the proportion of income they save, the total value of savings in the economy will not increase, it will either decline or remain unchanged. ✓
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D
The paradox of thrift (NCERT): if all people increase the proportion of income they save, the total value of savings in the economy will not increase—it will decline or remain unchanged, because aggregate demand and income fall.
Q15.
______________ depicts what has actually happened.
A. Ex-Ante
B. Ex-Post ✓
C. Constant
D. Variable
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
Ex-post refers to realized/actual values (what has actually happened), while ex-ante refers to planned/intended values.
Q16.
If the value of Investment Multiplier is 5 and the increased income is ₹ 800 crore in an economy, then find the value of change in the investment in the economy.
Which of the following statements are true ?
(A) Quantitative tools control the extent of money supply by changing the CRR.
(B) There are two types of open market operations – outright and upright.
(C) A fall in the bank rate can decrease the money supply.
(D) Selling of a bond by RBI leads to reduction in quantity of reserves.
(E) The RBI can influence money supply by changing the rate at which it gives loan to the commercial banks.
A. (A), (C) and (D) only
B. (A), (B) and (D) only
C. (B), (D) and (E) only
D. (A), (D) and (E) only ✓
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D
(A) CRR is a quantitative tool controlling money supply—correct. (D) RBI selling bonds (OMO sale) absorbs reserves—correct. (E) RBI changing the repo/bank rate at which it lends to commercial banks influences money supply—correct. (B) wrong: OMO types are outright and repo, not 'upright'. (C) wrong: a fall in bank rate increases (not decreases) money supply. So (A), (D) and (E) only.
Q18.
Match List-I with List-II :
List-I: (A) Bank Rate, (B) Marginal Standing Facility, (C) Repo Rate, (D) Reverse Repo Rate
List-II: (I) Securities are pledged in order to repurchase, (II) Minimum rate at which funds are provided for long term, (III) Also known as Penal Interest Rate, (IV) Central Bank borrows funds from commercial banks
Bank Rate = minimum rate for long-term funds (II). Marginal Standing Facility is the penal rate above repo (III). Repo Rate involves securities pledged for repurchase (I). Reverse Repo = central bank borrows funds from commercial banks (IV). So A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV.
Q19.
Which of the following is not a function of Central Bank ?
A. It controls the money supply in the economy through different rates.
B. It acts as a banker to the government.
C. It accepts deposits and give loans to people. ✓
D. It issues the currency of the country.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
The central bank does not deal directly with the public; accepting deposits and giving loans to people is the function of commercial banks. The other three are central bank functions.
Q20.
Article 112 deals with :
A. Consolidated Fund of India
B. Public Account
C. Union Budget ✓
D. Contingency Fund
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
Article 112 of the Constitution deals with the Annual Financial Statement, i.e., the Union Budget.
Q21.
All those elements which create liability and decrease the assets of government are known as :
A. Capital Receipts ✓
B. Capital Payments
C. Revenue Receipts
D. Revenue Payments
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A
Capital receipts either create a liability (e.g., borrowings) or reduce assets (e.g., disinvestment) of the government.
Q22.
Arrange the following elements in correct chronological sequence (earliest to latest) :
(A) Smithsonian Agreement
(B) Bretton Woods Conference
(C) Establishment of WTO
(D) Gold Standard
Under flexible exchange rate, when the price of domestic currency in terms of foreign currency increases, it is called ____________ .
A. Depreciation of domestic currency
B. Appreciation of domestic currency ✓
C. Devaluation of domestic currency
D. Revaluation of domestic currency
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
When the price/value of the domestic currency rises in terms of foreign currency under a flexible (floating) exchange rate, it is appreciation. (Devaluation/revaluation are policy changes under a fixed rate system.)
Q24.
Match List-I with List-II :
List-I: (A) Pegged exchange rate system, (B) Managed floating, (C) Bretton Woods Conference, (D) Third element in BOP
List-II: (I) Setting up of IMF and World Bank, (II) Fixed exchange rate system, (III) Dirty floating, (IV) Error and Omission Account
Pegged exchange rate system = fixed exchange rate system (II). Managed floating = dirty floating (III). Bretton Woods Conference = setting up of IMF and World Bank (I). Third element in BOP = Errors and Omissions account (IV). So A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV.
Q25.
Casualization of workforce would result in :
A. Decrease in the vulnerablility of the workforce.
B. Increase in the vulnerability of the workforce. ✓
C. Increase in the number of regular workers.
D. Income and employment stablility.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
Casualization shifts workers to casual/informal jobs lacking job security and social protection, thereby increasing the vulnerability of the workforce.
Q26.
Choose the correct chronological sequence in ascending order (earliest to latest) :
(A) Establishment of NABARD
(B) FRBMA (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act)
(C) Third Five Year Plan
(D) Nationalization of RBI
A. (A), (B), (C), (D)
B. (A), (C), (B), (D)
C. (D), (A), (B), (C)
D. (D), (C), (A), (B) ✓
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D
Nationalization of RBI (1949) → Third Five Year Plan (1961–66) → Establishment of NABARD (1982) → FRBMA (2003). Ascending: (D), (C), (A), (B).
Q27.
____________ implies that resource extraction is not above the rate of regeneration of resources and the wastes generated are within the assimilating capacity of the environment.
A. Absorptive capacity
B. Carrying capacity ✓
C. Subsistence capacity
D. Exhaustive capacity
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
Carrying capacity (NCERT) means resource extraction does not exceed the rate of regeneration and wastes remain within the assimilative/absorptive capacity of the environment.
Q28.
Government of India enacted the Right to Education Act in 2009 to make free education a Fundamental Right of all children in the age group of ____________ years.
A. 4 – 10
B. 6 – 12
C. 6 – 14 ✓
D. 8 – 15
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
The Right to Education Act, 2009 makes free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right (Article 21A) for children aged 6–14 years.
Q29.
Following are the sources of electricity generation in India. Arrange them in correct sequence on the basis of total power generation capacity (higher to lower) :
(A) Nuclear
(B) Thermal
(C) New and renewable energy
(D) Hydro
A. (A), (B), (C), (D)
B. (A), (C), (B), (D)
C. (B), (C), (D), (A) ✓
D. (B), (D), (C), (A)
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
By installed power generation capacity (higher to lower): Thermal > New and renewable energy > Hydro > Nuclear. So (B), (C), (D), (A).
Q30.
Arrange the following items in correct sequence :
(A) Competition Act
(B) FEMA
(C) FERA
(D) MRTP
The Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign was initiated in ____________ .
A. 1948
B. 1938
C. 1958 ✓
D. 1942
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
China's Great Leap Forward campaign was initiated in 1958.
Q32.
Match List-I with List-II :
List-I: (A) Great Leap Forward, (B) Mao Zedong, (C) Brundtland Commission, (D) Our Common Future
List-II: (I) Protecting the future generation, (II) Aimed at industralising the country on a massive scale, (III) Introduced the Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution, (IV) Seminal Report that explained sustainable development as meeting the basic needs of all for a better life
Great Leap Forward aimed at massive-scale industrialisation (II). Mao Zedong introduced the Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution (III). Brundtland Commission focused on protecting future generations (I). Our Common Future is the seminal report defining sustainable development (IV). So A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV.
Q33.
Second phase of Green Revolution is termed from :
A. mid 1960s to mid 1970s
B. mid 1970s to mid 1980s ✓
C. mid 1950s to mid 1960s
D. mid 1980s to mid 1990s
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
The first phase of the Green Revolution was mid-1960s to mid-1970s and the second phase from mid-1970s to mid-1980s, when HYV technology spread to many states and crops.
Q34.
During 1980s, the growth rate in Pakistan improved on account of which of the following reasons ?
A. Institutionalised process of technical change
B. A good harvest ✓
C. Sustainable export of manufactured goods
D. High amount of foreign direct investment inflow
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
Per NCERT, Pakistan's improved growth in the 1980s was attributed to a good harvest (the agriculture sector performing well), not to a sustained institutionalised process.
Q35.
When there is unexpected rise in the sales ____________ .
A. Aggregate demand would decline.
B. There will be unplanned accumulation of inventories.
C. There will be unplanned decumulation of inventories. ✓
D. Normal profit would be lower.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
An unexpected rise in sales means goods are sold faster than planned, leading to an unplanned fall (decumulation) of inventories.
Q36.
During festive season, the currency deposit ratio ____________ .
A. decreases
B. increases ✓
C. has no impact on it
D. first decreases then increases
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
The currency deposit ratio is the ratio of currency held by people to deposits. During festive seasons people hold more cash for spending, so the currency deposit ratio increases (NCERT).
Q37.
European Monetary Union was created in ____________.
A. 1996
B. 1994
C. 1999 ✓
D. 2002
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
The European Monetary Union (with the euro introduced as an electronic currency and the EMU's third stage) was established in 1999.
Q38.
Identify the correct statement in the context of Circular Flow of Income in a two sector economy :
A. Household receives factor services from firms.
B. Household invests while firm saves.
C. Firms produce goods and services. ✓
D. Household supplies factor services to Government.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
In a two-sector circular flow, households supply factor services to firms, and firms produce goods and services. There is no government in a two-sector model, so options A and D are wrong. So firms produce goods and services is correct.
Q39.
Identify the correct set of statements.
(A) Ex Ante Saving represents what is actually planned to save.
(B) Ex Post Saving represents what is actually planned to save.
(C) Ex Post Saving depicts what has actually happened.
(D) Ex Ante Post Saving represents what is actually saved.
A. (A) and (D) only
B. (A) and (C) only ✓
C. (B) and (D) only
D. (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
(A) Ex ante saving = what is planned to save—correct. (C) Ex post saving = what has actually happened (realized saving)—correct. (B) is wrong (ex post is realized, not planned) and (D) is garbled/wrong. So (A) and (C) only.
Q40.
Match List-I with List-II :
List-I (Elements): (A) Annual Financial Statement, (B) Capital Receipts, (C) Capital Payment, (D) Export > Import
List-II (Features): (I) Create liabilities or reduce financial assets, (II) Trade surplus, (III) Main budget document, (IV) Create financial assets or reduce liabilities
A. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
B. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) ✓
C. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
D. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
Annual Financial Statement = main budget document (III). Capital Receipts create liabilities or reduce financial assets (I). Capital Payment creates financial assets or reduces liabilities (IV). Export > Import = trade surplus (II). So A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II.
In our quest to increase agricultural production during the last five decades or so, we almost totally neglected the use of compost and completely switched over to chemical fertilizers. The result is that large tracts of productive land have been adversely affected, water bodies including ground water system have suffered due to chemical contamination and demand for irrigation has been going up year after year. Farmers, in large numbers all over the country, have again started using compost made from organic wastes of different types. In certain parts of the country, cattle are maintained only because they produce dung which is an important fertilizer and soil conditioner.
Earthworms can convert organic matter into compost faster than the normal composting process. This process is now being widely used. Indirectly, the civic authorities are benefitted too as they have to dispose reduced quantity of waste.
Q41.
How is civic authority getting benefitted due to biocomposting ?
A. They have to dispose increased quantity of waste.
B. They don't have to dispose any waste.
C. Because civic authority has no role in waste management.
D. They have to dispose reduced quantity of waste. ✓
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D
The passage states: 'Indirectly, the civic authorities are benefitted too as they have to dispose reduced quantity of waste.'
Q42.
Choose the correct statement concerned with the passage :
A. Earthworm takes equal time to convert organic matter into compost with respect to normal composting process.
B. Earthworm takes more time to convert organic matter into compost with respect to normal composting process.
C. Earthworm takes less time to convert organic matter into compost with respect to normal composting process. ✓
D. Comparison between earthworm based composting and normal composting cannot be made.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
The passage states earthworms can convert organic matter into compost faster than the normal composting process—i.e., they take less time.
Q43.
Water bodies including ground water system have suffered due to :
A. Biocomposting
B. Chemical contamination and increased demand for irrigation ✓
C. Organic farming
D. Increased fertility of land
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
The passage states water bodies including ground water systems have suffered due to chemical contamination (and demand for irrigation went up year after year).
Q44.
In certain parts of the country, cattle are maintained only because they ____________ .
A. Produce milk to increase income of farmers
B. Produce dung which is an important fertilizer and soil conditioner ✓
C. Work as insect repellants
D. Are a symbol of traditional ethics and values
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
The passage states cattle are maintained in certain parts only because they produce dung which is an important fertilizer and soil conditioner.
Q45.
What should be the suitable title for the above passage ?
A. Biocomposting ✓
B. Biopest Control
C. Traditional Knowledge and Practice
D. Uses of Chemical Fertilizers
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A
The passage centrally discusses composting from organic wastes and earthworm-based (bio) composting and its benefits, so the most suitable title is Biocomposting.
India had an independent economy before the advent of the British rule. Though agriculture was the main source of livelihood for most people, yet, the country's economy was characterised by various kinds of manufacturing activities. India was particularly well known for its handicraft industries in the fields of cotton and silk textiles, metal and precious stone works etc. These products enjoyed a worldwide market based on the reputation of the fine quality of material used and the high standards of craftsmanship seen in all imports from India. The economic policies pursued by the colonial government in India were concerned more with the protection and promotion of the economic interests of their home country than with the development of the Indian economy. Such policies brought about a fundamental change in the structure of the Indian economy — transforming the country into a supplier of raw materials and consumer of finished industrial products from Britain. Obviously, the colonial government never made any sincere attempt to estimate India's national and per capita income. Some individual attempts which were made to measure such incomes yielded conflicting and inconsistent results. Among the notable estimators — Dadabhai Naoroji, William Digby, Findlay Shirras, V.K.R.V. Rao and R.C. Desai — it was Rao, whose estimates during the colonial period were considered very significant. However, most studies did find that the country's growth of aggregate real output during the first half of the twentieth century was less than two per cent coupled with a meagre half per cent growth in per capita output per year.
Q46.
Before the British rule, India was well known for which manufacturing industries' products ?
A. Cotton and Silk or Khadi textiles
B. Cotton and Engineering products
C. Cotton and Silk textiles, metal and precious stones, etc ✓
D. Engineering goods and precious metals
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
The passage states India was well known for handicraft industries in cotton and silk textiles, metal and precious stone works etc.
Q47.
What kind of interests was the colonial government concerned with in the economic policy for Indian industries ?
A. To promote the handicraft industries of India
B. Promote and protect small scale industries of India
C. Protect and promote the economic interests of Indian industry along with their home country
D. Provide protection and promotion of the economic interests of their home country ✓
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D
The passage states the colonial government's policies were concerned more with the protection and promotion of the economic interests of their home country than with the development of the Indian economy.
Q48.
Choose the economists who estimated India's National Income and Per Capita Income.
A. Dadabhai Naoroji, William Digby, Bernier, V.K.R.V. Rao and R.C. Desai
B. Dadabhai Naoroji, William Digby, Findlay Shirras, V.K.R.V. Rao and R.C. Desai ✓
C. Dadabhai Naoroji, Jagdish Bhagwati, V.K.R.V. Rao and R.C. Desai
D. Dadabhai Naoroji, Findlay Shrirras and V.K.R.V. Rao
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B
The passage lists the notable estimators as Dadabhai Naoroji, William Digby, Findlay Shirras, V.K.R.V. Rao and R.C. Desai.
Q49.
What was the country's growth of aggregate real output during the first half of the 20th century ?
A. The country's growth of aggregate real output was less than two percent coupled with a meagre one percent growth in per capita output per year.
B. The country's growth of aggregate real output was less than two percent coupled with a meagre one and a half percent growth in per capita output per year.
C. The country's growth of aggregate real output was less than two and a half percent coupled with a meagre half percent growth in per capita output per year.
D. The country's growth of aggregate real output was less than two percent coupled with a meagre half percent growth in per capita output per year. ✓
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D
The passage states growth of aggregate real output was less than two per cent coupled with a meagre half per cent growth in per capita output per year.
Q50.
According to the passage, which of the following statement was true about Indian industries' products ?
A. Indian products were of inferior quality and cheap in the worldwide market.
B. Indian products were promoted by the colonial government and competed with other countries' markets also.
C. Indian products enjoyed a worldwide market based on quality of material used and the high standard of craftsmanship. ✓
D. Indian products' raw material for primary goods was imported from the other countries and it helped to increase export.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C
The passage states Indian products enjoyed a worldwide market based on the reputation of the fine quality of material used and the high standards of craftsmanship.
Original question paper source: National Testing Agency (NTA), CUET (UG) 2024. Reproduced for educational use. Answers & explanations by UniDrill.