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CUET 2025 Chemistry Question Paper with Answers & Solutions

50 questions with answer key & explanations

Q1.
The value of van't Hoff factor, $i$, for $\ce{CH3COOH}$ solution in water will be
A. Between 1 and 2
B. Less than 1
C. 2
D. 1
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Acetic acid is a weak acid that partially dissociates in water: $\ce{CH3COOH <=> CH3COO^- + H^+}$. Partial dissociation gives $i$ between 1 (no dissociation) and 2 (complete dissociation into two ions).

Q2.
The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 1 g of solute in 1 L of the solution. Arrange the following solutions in decreasing order of their molarity (A) Glucose ( molar mass = 180 g mol$^{-1}$) (B) NaOH ( molar mass = 40 g mol$^{-1}$) (C) NaCl ( molar mass = 58.5 g mol$^{-1}$) (D) KCl ( molar mass = 74.5 g mol$^{-1}$) Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (D), (C), (B)
B. (A), (B), (D), (C)
C. (B), (C), (D), (A)
D. (D), (C), (A), (B)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Molarity = (1 g / M) / 1 L = 1/M. Lower molar mass gives higher molarity. M values: NaOH 40, NaCl 58.5, KCl 74.5, Glucose 180. Decreasing molarity: NaOH(B) > NaCl(C) > KCl(D) > Glucose(A), i.e. (B),(C),(D),(A).

Q3.
Match List-I with List-II List-I (Solutions): (A) Saturated solution; (B) Isotonic solutions; (C) Binary solution; (D) Hypertonic solution List-II (Explanation): (I) Solution having two components. (II) A solution whose osmotic pressure is more than that of another. (III) A solution which contains the maximum amount of solute that can be dissolved in a given amount of solvent at a given temperature. (IV) The solutions having same osmotic pressure at a given temperature. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
B. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
C. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
D. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Saturated = max solute (III); Isotonic = same osmotic pressure (IV); Binary = two components (I); Hypertonic = higher osmotic pressure (II). So (A)-(III),(B)-(IV),(C)-(I),(D)-(II).

Q4.
Give the reason for low concentration of oxygen in the blood and tissues of people living at high altitude
A. Both low temperature and high atmospheric pressure
B. low temperature
C. Low atmospheric pressure
D. High atmospheric pressure
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

By Henry's law, solubility of a gas is proportional to its partial pressure. At high altitude atmospheric (and hence oxygen partial) pressure is low, so less O2 dissolves in blood, causing anoxia.

Q5.
Calculate the molality of KI if the density of 20% (mass/mass) aqueous solution of KI is 1.202 g mL$^{-1}$. [Molar mass of KI is 166 g mol$^{-1}$]
A. 1.5 mol kg$^{-1}$
B. 1.2 mol kg$^{-1}$
C. 15 mol kg$^{-1}$
D. 0.12 mol kg$^{-1}$
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

In 100 g solution: 20 g KI, 80 g water. Moles KI = 20/166 = 0.1205 mol. Molality = 0.1205 mol / 0.080 kg = 1.506 mol kg$^{-1}$ ≈ 1.5. (Density not needed for molality.)

Q6.
The unit of $E_{cell}$ is
A. V m$^{-1}$
B. S cm$^{-1}$
C. V
D. S cm$^{-2}$ mol$^{-1}$
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

$E_{cell}$ is the cell potential (electromotive force), measured in volts (V).

Q7.
Match List-I with List-II List-I (Property): (A) Cell constant; (B) Molar conductance; (C) Specific conductance; (D) Conductance List-II (Unit): (I) cm$^{-1}$; (II) ohm$^{-1}$ cm$^2$ mol$^{-1}$; (III) ohm$^{-1}$ cm$^{-1}$; (IV) ohm$^{-1}$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
B. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
C. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
D. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Cell constant = cm$^{-1}$ (I); Molar conductance = ohm$^{-1}$ cm$^2$ mol$^{-1}$ (II); Specific conductance (conductivity) = ohm$^{-1}$ cm$^{-1}$ (III); Conductance = ohm$^{-1}$ (IV). So (A)-(I),(B)-(II),(C)-(III),(D)-(IV).

Q8.
The following statements describe various properties of a Mercury cell: (A) It converts energy of combustion into electrical energy (B) It is rechargeable (C) The cell reaction involved is $\ce{Zn(Hg) + HgO(s) -> ZnO(s) + Hg(l)}$ (D) It is a low current device used in hearing aids Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B) and (D) only
B. (A) and (C) only
C. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
D. (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Mercury cell is a primary (non-rechargeable) cell, not a combustion device. Correct facts: net reaction $\ce{Zn(Hg) + HgO(s) -> ZnO(s) + Hg(l)}$ (C) and it is a low-current device used in hearing aids/watches (D). So (C) and (D) only.

Q9.
Which cell is used in automobiles and inverters?
A. Mercury cell
B. Dry cell
C. Lead storage cell
D. Fuel cell
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The lead storage (lead-acid) battery is the rechargeable secondary cell used in automobiles and inverters.

Q10.
A galvanic cell behaves as electrolytic cell when ?
A. $E_{cell} = E_{ext}$
B. $E_{cell} = 0$
C. $E_{ext} > E_{cell}$
D. $E_{cell} > E_{ext}$
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

When an external potential greater than $E_{cell}$ is applied ($E_{ext} > E_{cell}$), current reverses and the galvanic cell functions as an electrolytic cell.

Q11.
Which of the following does not represent a correct application of the coordination compound?
A. cis-platin effectively inhibit the growth of tumours.
B. chlorophyll help in photosynthesis
C. desferrioxime B is used in treatment of lead poisoning
D. cyanocobalamine, antipernicious anemia factor is a coordination compound of Co
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Desferrioxime B (D-penicillamine/desferrioxime) is used in treatment of iron poisoning (excess iron), not lead poisoning. The other statements are correct.

Q12.
Arrange the following ions in increasing order of number of $3d$-electrons (A) $\ce{Cr^2+}$ (B) $\ce{Cu^+}$ (C) $\ce{Ti^3+}$ (D) $\ce{Mn^+}$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (B), (A), (C), (D)
B. (C), (A), (D), (B)
C. (C), (D), (A), (B)
D. (D), (B), (C), (A)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

$\ce{Ti^3+}$ = $3d^1$; $\ce{Cr^2+}$ = $3d^4$; $\ce{Mn^+}$ = $3d^5 4s^1$ (5 d-electrons); $\ce{Cu^+}$ = $3d^{10}$. Increasing 3d electrons: Ti(1) < Mn(5) < Cr... wait check: Ti=1, Cr=4, Mn+=5(d5 4s1), Cu+=10. So order Ti(C) < Cr(A) < Mn(D) < Cu(B). That is (C),(A),(D),(B) = option B. Re-evaluating Mn+: Mn(Z=25)=$3d^5 4s^2$, Mn+ removes one 4s = $3d^5 4s^1$, so 3d=5; Cr2+ = $3d^4$=4. Thus Ti(1)<Cr(4)<Mn(5)<Cu(10) = (C),(A),(D),(B). Option B.

Q13.
The atomic number of Lanthanum is 57. Its electronic configuration will be ........
A. $[Xe]5d^16s^2$
B. $[Xe]4f^15d^2$
C. $[Xe]4f^3$
D. $[Xe]4f^15d^16s^1$
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Lanthanum (Z=57) has configuration $[Xe]5d^1 6s^2$ — the 4f subshell is empty in La.

Q14.
Match compound/elememts of List-I with their uses given in List-II List-I (Compound/Elements): (A) Magnesium based alloy is constituent of; (B) Lanthanoid oxide; (C) Mixed oxides of Lanthanoids are employed in; (D) Misch metal List-II (Uses): (I) Bullets; (II) Petroleum cracking; (III) Television screen; (IV) Lanthanoid metal and iron Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
B. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
C. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
D. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Mg-based alloy (misch metal) used in bullets/shells (I); Lanthanoid oxide used in TV screens/phosphors (III); Mixed lanthanoid oxides used as catalysts in petroleum cracking (II); Misch metal = lanthanoid metal (~95%) + iron (~5%) (IV). So (A)-(I),(B)-(III),(C)-(II),(D)-(IV).

Q15.
What is the color of $\ce{Fe^3+}$(aqs) ion?
A. Yellow
B. Violet
C. Colourless
D. Bluepink
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Hydrated $\ce{Fe^3+}$ ion (as $\ce{[Fe(H2O)6]^3+}$, often hydrolysed) appears yellow/pale yellow-brown in aqueous solution.

Q16.
Why is HCl not used to make the medium acidic in oxidation reactions of $\ce{KMnO4}$ in acidic medium?
A. $\ce{KMnO4}$ is weaker oxidizing agent than HCl
B. $\ce{KMnO4}$ oxidises HCl into $\ce{Cl2}$ which is also an oxidizing agent
C. Both HCl and $\ce{KMnO4}$ act as oxidizing agent
D. $\ce{KMnO4}$ act as a reducing agent in the presence of HCl
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

$\ce{KMnO4}$ oxidises HCl to chlorine ($\ce{Cl2}$), consuming the oxidant and interfering with the reaction, so dilute $\ce{H2SO4}$ is used instead.

Q17.
Acidified potassium dichromate oxidizes sulphides ($\ce{S^2-}$) to .........
A. $\ce{SO4^2-}$
B. $\ce{SO3^2-}$
C. sulphur (S)
D. $\ce{SO2}$
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Acidified $\ce{K2Cr2O7}$ oxidises sulphide ions ($\ce{S^2-}$, oxidation state −2) to elemental sulphur (S, state 0): $\ce{3H2S + Cr2O7^2- + 8H^+ -> 2Cr^3+ + 3S + 7H2O}$.

Q18.
What is the decreasing order of field strength of given ligands? (A) $\ce{S^2-}$ (B) Ethylenediamine (C) $\ce{NCS^-}$ (D) $\ce{CN^-}$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (C), (B), (D)
B. (A), (B), (C), (D)
C. (D), (B), (C), (A)
D. (D), (C), (B), (A)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Spectrochemical series (decreasing field strength): $\ce{CN^-}$ > en > $\ce{NCS^-}$ (N-bonded) > $\ce{S^2-}$. So (D),(B),(C),(A).

Q19.
What is the IUPAC name of $\ce{[Pt(NH3)2Cl2]}$ ?
A. Diamminedichloridoplatinum (IV)
B. Diamminedichloridoplatinum (II)
C. Diamminedichloridoplatinum (0)
D. Dichloridodiammineplatinum (IV)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Ligands alphabetical (ammine before chlorido). Oxidation state of Pt: x + 0 × 2 (NH3 neutral) + (−1) × 2 = 0, so x = +2. Name: diamminedichloridoplatinum(II).

Q20.
Select the correct statements for $\ce{[Fe(CN)6]^3-}$ complex: (A) Paramagnetic (B) $sp^3d^2$ hybridization (C) Magnetic moment = 5.92 BM (D) $d^2sp^3$ hybridization Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) and (D) only
B. (A), (B) and (C) only
C. (B) and (C) only
D. (B), (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Fe is +3 ($d^5$); $\ce{CN^-}$ is strong field, so low-spin with one unpaired electron: $d^2sp^3$ hybridization, inner orbital octahedral, paramagnetic with μ ≈ 1.73 BM (not 5.92). Correct statements: (A) paramagnetic and (D) $d^2sp^3$.

Q21.
Match List-I with List-II List-I: (A) Ambident nucleophiles; (B) Plane polarized light; (C) Superimposable mirror image; (D) $\beta$-elimination reaction List-II: (I) Symmetrical object; (II) Saytzeff rule; (III) Cyanides and nitrites; (IV) Nicol Prism Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
B. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
C. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
D. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Ambident nucleophiles = cyanides and nitrites (III); Plane polarized light produced by Nicol prism (IV); Superimposable mirror image = symmetrical (achiral) object (I); β-elimination follows Saytzeff rule (II). So (A)-(III),(B)-(IV),(C)-(I),(D)-(II).

Q22.
Optically active alkyl halide undergoing $S_N2$ substitution involves
A. retention of configuration
B. recemic mixture
C. inversion of configuration
D. formation of carbocation
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

SN2 proceeds via backside attack giving Walden inversion — inversion of configuration.

Q23.
Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is used for the preparation of
A. tertiary amine
B. acid synthesis
C. primary amine
D. secondary amine
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Gabriel phthalimide synthesis produces primary aliphatic amines (aromatic amines cannot be prepared as aryl halides do not react).

Q24.
The above reaction is an example of
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. Sandmeyer's reaction
B. Wurtz reaction
C. Wurtz Fittig reaction
D. Kolbe reaction
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Coupling of an aryl halide with an alkyl halide using sodium in dry ether to give an alkyl-substituted arene is the Wurtz–Fittig reaction.

Q25.
The reagent(s) used in hydroboration oxidation of propene are (A) $\ce{B2H6}$ (B) $\ce{H2O}$ (C) $\ce{H2O2}$ (D) $\ce{OH^-}$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B) and (D) only
B. (A), (B) and (C) only
C. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
D. (B), (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Hydroboration-oxidation: alkene + $\ce{B2H6}$ (diborane) gives trialkylborane, then oxidation with $\ce{H2O2}$ in $\ce{OH^-}$ (alkaline), with $\ce{H2O}$ involved. All four reagents are used.

Q26.
The carbohydrate used as storage molecule in plants is
A. Starch
B. Glycogen
C. Cellulose
D. Glucose
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Starch is the main storage polysaccharide in plants (glycogen is the animal storage form, cellulose is structural).

Q27.
Hell-Volhard Zelinsky reaction is used for the formation of
A. alcohols
B. aldehydes
C. ketones
D. $\alpha$-halocarboxylic acids
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

The Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction halogenates carboxylic acids at the α-carbon (using $\ce{X2}$ and red P) to give α-halocarboxylic acids.

Q28.
What is the correct sequence of increasing reactivity of the following compounds towards nucleophilic addition reaction? (A) Ethanal (B) Propanone (C) Propanal (D) Butanone Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B), (C), (D)
B. (D), (B), (C), (A)
C. (A), (C), (B), (D)
D. (C), (B), (D), (A)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Nucleophilic addition reactivity: aldehydes > ketones, and more/larger alkyl groups decrease reactivity (steric + electronic). Order of increasing reactivity: butanone(D) < propanone(B) < propanal(C) < ethanal(A). So (D),(B),(C),(A).

Q29.
Which of the following reagent(s) is required for the conversion of Benzene to methyl benzoate? (A) $\ce{Br2/FeBr3}$ (B) Mg, dry Ether (C) $\ce{CO2}$, $\ce{H3O^+}$ (D) Methanol, Conc. $\ce{H2SO4}$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B) and (C) only
B. (A), (B) and (D) only
C. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
D. (B), (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Benzene → bromobenzene ($\ce{Br2/FeBr3}$) → Grignard (Mg, dry ether) → benzoic acid ($\ce{CO2}$, then $\ce{H3O^+}$) → methyl benzoate (Fischer esterification: methanol, conc. $\ce{H2SO4}$). All four reagents required.

Q30.
Which reagent will distinguish Benzophenone from acetone ?
A. Fehling's reagent
B. Tollen's reagent
C. 2,4-DNP reagent
D. $\ce{I2/NaOH}$
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Acetone ($\ce{CH3COCH3}$) has a $\ce{CH3CO-}$ group and gives a positive iodoform ($\ce{I2/NaOH}$) test (yellow precipitate); benzophenone ($\ce{C6H5COC6H5}$) has no methyl ketone group and does not. Both give 2,4-DNP; neither reduces Fehling/Tollens (they are ketones).

Q31.
The structural feature in carbonyl compound for Aldol condensation
A. presence of at least one $\beta$-hydrogen
B. presence of at least one $\alpha$-hydrogen
C. Concentrated base
D. lack of $\alpha$ hydrogen
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Aldol condensation requires at least one α-hydrogen so that an enolate (carbanion) can form.

Q32.
The nitrogen atom in amines is trivalent and possess an unshared pair of electrons. The geometry of trimethyl amine is ........
A. Tetrahedral
B. Pyramidal
C. Square planar
D. Triangular
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

N in trimethylamine is $sp^3$ with three bond pairs and one lone pair, giving a pyramidal (trigonal pyramidal) geometry.

Q33.
What happens when $\ce{C6H5-O-R}$ is treated with HX?
A. RX and $\ce{C6H5OH}$ are formed
B. ROH and $\ce{C6H5X}$ are formed
C. $\ce{C6H4X2}$ and ROH are formed
D. RX and $\ce{C6H5X}$ are formed
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

In cleavage of alkyl aryl ethers by HX, the aryl-O bond is not cleaved; the alkyl-O bond breaks to give phenol and alkyl halide: $\ce{C6H5-O-R + HX -> C6H5OH + RX}$.

Q34.
In the nitration of benzene using a mixture of conc. $\ce{H2SO4}$ and conc. $\ce{HNO3}$, the nitrating species is
A. $\ce{NO2^-}$
B. $\ce{NO2^+}$
C. $\ce{NO^+}$
D. $\ce{NO2}$ and $\ce{NO2^+}$
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The electrophile (nitrating species) in benzene nitration is the nitronium ion $\ce{NO2^+}$, generated by $\ce{HNO3 + 2H2SO4 -> NO2^+ + H3O^+ + 2HSO4^-}$.

Q35.
Which of the following compounds will not give azo coupling reaction with benzene diazonium chloride?
A. Nitrobenzene
B. Aniline
C. o-Toluidine
D. Phenol
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Azo coupling needs an electron-rich aromatic (activated by –OH or –NH2). Nitrobenzene has the strongly deactivating –NO2 group and will not couple. Aniline, o-toluidine and phenol all couple.

Q36.
Amylose is a water-soluble part of starch. What is the percentage solubility of it?
A. 20 to 30%
B. 15 to 20%
C. 30 to 60%
D. 50 to 70%
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Starch consists of amylose (water-soluble, about 15–20%) and amylopectin (insoluble, about 80–85%) per NCERT.

Q37.
What is an example of globular protein? (A) Insulin (B) Keratin (C) Albumin (D) Myosin Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B) and (D) only
B. (A) and (C) only
C. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
D. (B), (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Globular proteins (chains coiled into spherical shape) include insulin and albumin. Keratin and myosin are fibrous proteins. So (A) and (C) only.

Q38.
Which types of bonds or interactions are found in the $\beta$-helix of protein?
A. Ionic bond
B. Covalent interaction
C. H-bond
D. Banana bond
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The helical/pleated secondary structures of proteins (α-helix and β-sheet) are stabilised by hydrogen bonds between C=O and N–H groups.

Q39.
Match the amino acid given in List-I with their one letter code given in List-II List-I (Name of amino acid): (A) Lysine; (B) Tryptophan; (C) Tyrosine; (D) Glutamine List-II (One letter code): (I) W; (II) Q; (III) K; (IV) Y Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
B. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
C. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
D. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

One-letter codes: Lysine = K (III); Tryptophan = W (I); Tyrosine = Y (IV); Glutamine = Q (II). So (A)-(III),(B)-(I),(C)-(IV),(D)-(II).

Q40.
Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their acidic strength: (A) 3-nitrophenol (B) 3,5-Dinitrophenol (C) 2,4,6 -Trinitrophenol (D) Phenol Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A. (D), (C), (B), (A)
B. (C), (A), (B), (D)
C. (D), (A), (B), (C)
D. (A), (B), (C), (D)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Electron-withdrawing nitro groups increase acidity; more nitro groups = more acidic. Increasing order: phenol(D) < 3-nitrophenol(A) < 3,5-dinitrophenol(B) < 2,4,6-trinitrophenol/picric acid(C). So (D),(A),(B),(C).

The speed at which a chemical reaction takes place is called the rate of reaction. The rate of reaction depends on various factors like concentration of the reactants, temperature, etc. The relation between the rate of reaction and the concentration of reacting species is represented by the equation $r = k[A]^x[B]^y$, where x and y are the order of the reaction with respect to the reactants A and B, respectively. The overall order of the reaction is x + y. The rate of reaction can also be increased by the use of a catalyst which provides an alternate pathway of lower activation energy. It increases the rate of forward and backward reaction to an equal extent. It does not alter the Gibbs energy of the reaction.
Q41.
The rate of a gaseous reaction is given by $r = k[A][B]$. If the volume of the reaction vessel is suddenly reduced to (1/4)th of its initial value, the reaction rate relating to the initial rate will become
A. 2 times
B. 1/4 times
C. 16 times
D. 1/16 times
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Reducing volume to 1/4 increases each concentration 4 times. Rate = k[A][B], so new rate = k(4[A])(4[B]) = 16 k[A][B] = 16 times the initial rate.

Q42.
Calculate the order of a reaction whose Rate = $k[A]^{1/2}[B]^{3/2}$.
A. second order
B. half order
C. first order
D. zero order
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Overall order = x + y = 1/2 + 3/2 = 2, i.e. second order.

Q43.
The rate law of a reaction is given by $r = k[\ce{CH3OCH3}]^{3/2}$. If the pressure is measured in bar and time in minutes, then the unit of rate constant will be
A. bar$^{1/2}$ min$^{-1}$.
B. bar$^{-3/2}$ min$^{-1}$.
C. bar$^{-1/2}$ min$^{-1}$.
D. bar$^{3/2}$ min$^{-1}$.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

k = rate / [P]^{3/2}. Units = (bar min$^{-1}$)/(bar$^{3/2}$) = bar$^{1-3/2}$ min$^{-1}$ = bar$^{-1/2}$ min$^{-1}$.

Q44.
If the rate of reaction becomes twenty-seven times upon increasing the concentration of reactant by three times, the order of this reaction is
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Rate ∝ [A]^n. $3^n = 27 = 3^3$, so n = 3. Third order.

Q45.
The role of a catalyst is to change
A. Gibbs energy of the reaction.
B. Enthalpy of a reaction.
C. Activation energy of a reaction.
D. Equilibrium constant.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

A catalyst provides an alternate pathway of lower activation energy; it does not change ΔG, ΔH, or the equilibrium constant.

Replacement of a hydrogen atom in a hydrocarbon by an alkoxy or carboxyl group yields a class of compounds known as ethers. Ethers are classified as symmetrical or unsymmetrical on the basis of groups attached to the oxygen atoms. Diethyl ether, a symmetrical ether, has been widely used as an inhalation anesthetic. Ethers can be prepared by acid catalyzed intermolecular dehydration of alcohols and Williamson's synthesis. Acid catalyzed dehydration of alcohols is not generally preferred as it gives a mixture of elimination and substitution products. In Williamson's synthesis, an alkyl halide is allowed to react with sodium alkoxide. Ethers containing substituted Alkyl groups may also be prepared by this method. The C-O bond in ether is weakly polar and is cleaved under drastic conditions with excess of hydrogen halides. In electrophilic substitution, the alkoxy group deactivates the aromatic ring and directs the incoming group to ortho and para positions.
Q46.
When ethanol is dehydrated in the presence of $\ce{H2SO4}$ at 443K and 413 K respectively the products formed are
A. Ethane and ethoxythane
B. Ethylmethyl ether and butene
C. Ethylmethyl ether and propene
D. Ethene and ethoxyethane
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

At higher temperature (443 K) ethanol undergoes intramolecular dehydration to ethene (elimination); at lower temperature (413 K) intermolecular dehydration gives ethoxyethane (diethyl ether).

Q47.
The major product in the reaction of anisole with bromine in ethanoic acid, is:
A. o- bromoanisole
B. p- bromoanisole
C. m-bromoanisole
D. o-bromoanisole and p-bromoanisole
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Correct answer: B

The methoxy group is o/p-directing; due to steric hindrance the para product predominates, so p-bromoanisole is the major product.

Q48.
In Williamson synthesis, the alkoxide ion attacks the alkyl halide via which pathway?
A. $S_N2$
B. $S_N1$
C. Depends on nature of alkoxide ion
D. Depends on the nature of Alkyl halide
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Correct answer: A

Williamson ether synthesis proceeds by SN2; the alkoxide is a strong nucleophile and works best with primary alkyl halides.

Q49.
Which is most reactive hydrogen halide for cleavage of ethers?
A. HF
B. HCl
C. HBr
D. HI
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Correct answer: D

Reactivity of HX towards ether cleavage: HI > HBr > HCl. HI is most reactive because iodide is the best nucleophile and HI is the strongest acid.

Q50.
Which type of ether is anisole ?
A. Dialkyl ether
B. Diaryl ether
C. Phenyl Alkyl ether
D. Alkoxy Alkyl ether
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Correct answer: C

Anisole is $\ce{C6H5-O-CH3}$ (methoxybenzene), an aryl alkyl (phenyl alkyl) ether with one aryl and one alkyl group on oxygen.

Original question paper source: National Testing Agency (NTA), CUET (UG) 2025. Reproduced for educational use. Answers & explanations by UniDrill.