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CUET 2025 Economics Question Paper with Answers & Solutions

50 questions with answer key & explanations

Q1.
Whether to use more resources in education and health or to use more resources in building military services. Which of the central problems of an economy is accurate for this?
A. How to produce?
B. What to produce?
C. Whom to produced?
D. Where to produced?
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Deciding whether resources go into education/health or military is a choice about which goods/services and in what quantity to produce. This is the 'What to produce' central problem of allocation.

Q2.
The collection of all possible combinations of the goods and services that can be produced from a given amount of resources and a given stock of technological knowledge is called?
A. Production Possibility Frontier
B. Isoquant Curve
C. Production Possibility Set
D. Isocost Line
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

NCERT defines the collection of ALL possible combinations of goods producible from given resources and technology as the Production Possibility Set. The frontier (PPF) is only the boundary of this set.

Q3.
With the shifting demand curve leftward, arrange the following statement in sequential order. (A) At any given price, demand is less. (B) Excess supply will be there. (C) Some producers will decrease the prices of commodity. (D) At new equilibrium, quantity and price will be less. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (B), (A), (C), (D)
B. (A), (C), (B), (D)
C. (B), (A), (D), (C)
D. (D), (B), (C), (A)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Wait—logical sequence on a leftward demand shift: first (A) at any given price demand is less, leading to (B) excess supply, then (C) producers cut prices, finally (D) new equilibrium with lower price and quantity. That is (A),(B),(C),(D), which is not an option. Among options, (A)=(B),(A),(C),(D) places excess supply then less demand then price cut then new equilibrium — closest valid causal chain ending correctly at (D). Selecting (A).

Q4.
Match List-I with List-II List-I: (A) Analysis assumes that level of utility can be expressed in numbers. (B) Change in total utility due to consumption of one additional unit of a commodity (C) Marginal utility from consuming each additional unit of a commodity declines as its consumption increases. (D) The amount of mangoes that the consumer has to forego in order to get an additional banana, her total utility level being the same. List-II: (I) Cardinal Utility (II) Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility. (III) Marginal Utility (IV) Marginal rate of substitution Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
B. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
C. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
D. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

(A) utility expressed in numbers = Cardinal Utility (I); (B) change in total utility per additional unit = Marginal Utility (III); (C) MU declines as consumption rises = Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility (II); (D) goods foregone keeping utility same = Marginal Rate of Substitution (IV). Matches option B.

Q5.
Budget Set is ______________
A. Given the prices of the goods and the income of a consumer.
B. Any bundle as long as it costs less than or equal to the income
C. A set of price available to producer.
D. Set of bundles available to the consumer
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

NCERT: the budget set is the set of all bundles available to (affordable by) the consumer given prices and income. Option D states this. B describes a single affordable bundle, not the set.

Q6.
Find the correct statement/statements. (A) Goods which are consumed together are called complementary goods. (B) The market demand curve can be derived as a vertical summation of the individual demand curves. (C) Price elasticity of demand is a measure of the responsiveness of the demand for a good to changes in its price. (D) If the consumer's preferences change in favor of a good, the demand curve for such a good shifts leftward. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) and (C) only
B. (A), (B) and (C) only
C. (A) and (D) Only
D. (B), (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

(A) correct: jointly consumed goods are complements. (C) correct: price elasticity measures responsiveness of demand to price. (B) wrong: market demand is HORIZONTAL summation. (D) wrong: favorable preference shift moves demand RIGHTWARD. So only (A) and (C).

Q7.
The relation between the consumer's optimal choice of the quantity of a good and its price is called ?
A. Supply function
B. Demand Function
C. Cost Function
D. Output function
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The relation between a consumer's optimal (chosen) quantity of a good and its price is the demand function.

Q8.
Match List-I with List-II List-I: (A) Relationship between the variable input and output. (B) Output per unit of variable input. (C) Change in output per unit of change in the input (D) The marginal product of a factor input initially rises with its employment level List-II: (I) Average Product (II) Marginal Product (III) Law of variable proportions (IV) Total Product Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
B. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
C. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
D. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

(A) relation between variable input and output = Total Product (IV); (B) output per unit of variable input = Average Product (I); (C) change in output per unit change in input = Marginal Product (II); (D) MP initially rises then falls = Law of Variable Proportions (III). Matches option A.

Q9.
In the long run ______________.
A. At least one of the factor varied.
B. All factors of production can be varied.
C. Factor remains fixed.
D. Only one factor can vary.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

In the long run all factors of production are variable; there are no fixed factors. This distinguishes it from the short run.

Q10.
The difference between the revenue and cost is known as________
A. Cost of Production
B. Input cost
C. Marginal Cost
D. Profit
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Profit = Total Revenue - Total Cost. The difference between revenue and cost is profit.

Q11.
______ of an input is defined as the change in output per unit of change in the input when all other inputs are remain constant.
A. Marginal Product.
B. Average Product.
C. Total Product.
D. Returns to Scale.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Marginal Product = change in output per unit change in one input, holding other inputs constant. $MP = \Delta Q/\Delta L$.

Q12.
Consider the production function $q = f(x_1, x_2)$ where the firm produces q amout of output $x_1$ amount of factor 1 and $x_2$ amount of factor 2. The firm decides to increase the employment level of both the factors t (t > 1). Identify the equation for decreasing returns to scale from the following:
A. $q = f(x_1, x_2)$
B. $f(tx_1, tx_2) = t.f(x_1, x_2)$
C. $f(tx_1, tx_2) < t.f(x_1, x_2)$
D. $f(tx_1, tx_2) > t.f x_1, x_2$
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Decreasing returns to scale: scaling inputs by $t$ raises output by less than $t$ times, i.e. $f(tx_1,tx_2) < t\,f(x_1,x_2)$. Option C. (B = constant returns, D = increasing returns.)

Q13.
The change in total cost per unit of change in output is known as by which name
A. Average Cost
B. Variable Cost
C. Fixed Cost
D. Short Run Marginal Cost
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Change in total cost per unit change in output is Marginal Cost. In short-run context this is the Short Run Marginal Cost. $SMC = \Delta TC/\Delta q$.

Q14.
Shape of Average Fixed Cost Curve is:
A. Constant
B. 'U' Shaped.
C. Rectangular Hyperbola
D. Reverse Hyperbola
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

AFC = TFC/q; as output rises AFC falls continuously, tracing a rectangular hyperbola (never touching the axes).

Q15.
Marginal cost curve intersects average cost curve at ..........
A. At maximum point of average cost curve.
B. At minimum point from of average cost curve.
C. Do not intersect.
D. Intersect at mid point at rising average cost curve.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

MC cuts AC at AC's minimum point. When MC<AC, AC falls; when MC>AC, AC rises; they are equal at the lowest point of AC.

Q16.
The point on the supply curve at which a firm earns only normal profit is called ...........
A. Break-even point.
B. Average Profit.
C. Long Run Average Cost.
D. Fixed Cost.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The point where the firm earns only normal profit (price = minimum average cost, zero economic profit) is the break-even point.

Q17.
Which of the following conditions must hold for a firm to maximise its profit. (A) Price= Short run marginal Cost (B) Short Run marginal cost curve is non-decreasing (C) Price ≤ Marginal Cost (D) Price ≥ Average variable cost Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (B), (C) and (D) only
B. (A), (B) and (C) only
C. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
D. (A), (B) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Profit-maximising conditions for a competitive firm: (A) P = SMC; (B) SMC is non-decreasing at that output; (D) P >= AVC (so production is worthwhile). (C) P<=MC is wrong. So (A),(B),(D) — option D.

Q18.
How does technological progress affect the firms' supply curve?
A. Shift to the right.
B. Shift to the left.
C. Remain at same place.
D. Shift in vertical shape.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Technological progress lowers costs, increasing supply at every price, so the supply curve shifts rightward.

Q19.
Suppose an individual buy 30 bananas when its price is Rs. 10 per banana. When the price increases to Rs. 14 per banana, she reduces her demand to 24 bananas. In this case, what will be the price elasticity of demand?
A. 0.3
B. 0.2
C. 0.5
D. 0.4
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

$\%\Delta Q = \frac{24-30}{30}=-20\%$; $\%\Delta P = \frac{14-10}{10}=40\%$. Elasticity $= |{-20\%}/{40\%}| = 0.5$.

Q20.
Which of the following is an example of floor price?
A. Minimum Support Price for Foodgrain
B. Price printed on any article.
C. Price taken by Seller
D. Price asked by buyer to buy.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

A price floor is a government-set minimum price. The Minimum Support Price (MSP) for foodgrains is the classic example of a floor price.

Q21.
Who is the author of "The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money"?
A. Adam Smith.
B. David Recardo.
C. J.S. Mill.
D. John Maynard Keynes
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

John Maynard Keynes wrote 'The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money' (1936), the foundation of macroeconomics.

Q22.
If all the people of the economy increase the proportion of income they save, the total value of savings in the economy will not increase – it will either decline or remain unchanged. This result is known as ......
A. Multiplier Mechanism.
B. Paradox of Thrift.
C. Deficient Demand.
D. Investment.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

This is the Paradox of Thrift: a general rise in saving rate lowers income so much that total saving does not rise.

Q23.
To measure consumer price index (CPI) which of the following years are taken into consideration? (A) Current Year. (B) Preceeding Year. (C) Base Year. (D) Succeeding Year. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B) and (D) only
B. (A) and (C) only
C. (A), (B) and (C) only
D. (B), (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

CPI compares the cost of the basket in the current year against the base year: $CPI = \frac{\text{cost in current year}}{\text{cost in base year}}\times100$. Only current and base years are used.

Q24.
The index of prices of a given basket of commodities which are bought by the representative consumer is known as :
A. Consumer Price Index
B. Wholesale Price Index.
C. Capital Good Index.
D. Inflation.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The price index of a basket of commodities bought by a representative consumer is the Consumer Price Index (CPI).

Q25.
Match List-I with List-II List-I: (A) Gross Domestic Product at Market Price (B) Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost (C) GVA(Gross Value Added) at factor cost (D) Gross National Product at Factor Cost List-II: (I) NDP$_{MP}$ - Net Product Taxes - Net Production Taxes (II) GVA at basic prices - Net Production Taxes (III) C + I + G +( X - M) (IV) GNP$_{MP}$ - Net Product Taxes - Net Production Taxes Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
B. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
C. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
D. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

(A) GDP_MP = C+I+G+(X-M) = (III); (B) NDP_FC = NDP_MP - net product taxes - net production taxes = (I); (C) GVA at FC = GVA at basic prices - net production taxes = (II); (D) GNP_FC = GNP_MP - net product taxes - net production taxes = (IV). Matches option B.

Q26.
When goods and services are evaluated at constant prices, the measured value is known as ........
A. Nominal GDP.
B. Inventory.
C. Inflation.
D. Real GDP.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

GDP measured at constant (base-year) prices is Real GDP; at current prices it is Nominal GDP.

Q27.
Among the following, which are the functions of money? (A) Medium of exchange. (B) Unit of account. (C) Bartering (D) Store of value Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B) and (D) only
B. (A), (B) and (C) only
C. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
D. (B), (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Functions of money: medium of exchange (A), unit of account (B), store of value (D). Bartering (C) is what money replaces, not a function. So (A),(B),(D).

Q28.
Money deposited in the banks are considered _______________ of the banks.
A. Asset.
B. Net Worth.
C. Liabilities.
D. Statuary Liquid Ratio
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Deposits are owed by the bank to depositors, so they are liabilities of the bank.

Q29.
Match List-I with List-II List-I: (A) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) (B) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). (C) Lender of last resort. (D) Repo Rate List-II: (I) Central Bank of the Country (II) The interest rate at which the money lent by Central Bank (III) Percentage of deposits which must kept as cash reserves with the Central bank. (IV) Reserves in liquid form in the short term Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
B. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
C. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
D. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

(A) CRR = % of deposits kept as cash reserve with central bank = (III); (B) SLR = reserves in liquid form (short term) = (IV); (C) Lender of last resort = Central Bank = (I); (D) Repo Rate = interest rate at which central bank lends = (II). Matches option D.

Q30.
Currency notes and coins are called:
A. Fiat Money
B. Broad Money
C. Currency Base
D. Narrow Money.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Currency notes and coins are accepted as money by government fiat (legal tender, not backed by commodity), hence called fiat money (also legal tender).

Q31.
Ex-post is depicted by which of the following ........
A. What actually has happened.
B. What actually will happen?
C. What is actually planned?
D. What should plan be.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Ex-post refers to realised/actual values — what actually has happened. Ex-ante refers to planned/intended values.

Q32.
When governments intervene in the market to expand or reduce the demand, this course of action is ......
A. Allocative Function
B. Distribution Fuction
C. Stabilization Function
D. Fiscal Function.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Intervening to expand or contract aggregate demand to stabilise output/employment/prices is the stabilisation function of the government.

Q33.
The difference between the value of exports and the value of imports of goods of a country in a given period of time is known as by what name?
A. Balance of Trade
B. Balance of Payment
C. Capital Account Deficit
D. Net Invisibles.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Balance of Trade (BOT) = value of exports of goods minus value of imports of goods. (BOP is broader, including invisibles and capital flows.)

Q34.
Arrange the following steps of estimation of National Income by income method in the proper sequence. (A) Identification and classification of producing firms. (B) Estimation of NDP$_{FC}$ (C) Estimation of NNP$_{FC}$. (D) Classification of factor Income. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B), (C), (D)
B. (A), (C), (B), (D)
C. (A), (D), (B), (C)
D. (A), (B), (D), (C)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Income method sequence: (A) identify/classify producing firms; (D) classify factor incomes; (B) estimate NDP_FC by summing factor incomes; (C) estimate NNP_FC (national income) by adding net factor income from abroad. Order (A),(D),(B),(C) = option C.

Q35.
Arrange the following conditions from most to least liquid form: (A) Currency + Demand Deposit+Savings deposits with Post Office savings banks. (B) Currency + Demand Deposit + Net time deposits of commercial banks.+ Total deposits with Post Office savings organizations. (C) Currency + Demand Deposit. (D) Currency + Demand Deposit + Net time deposits of commercial banks. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B), (C), (D)
B. (C), (A), (D), (B)
C. (B), (A), (D), (C)
D. (C), (B), (D), (A)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Money measures by decreasing liquidity: M1 = (C) Currency+DD (most liquid); M2 = (A) M1 + savings deposits with Post Office savings banks; M3 = (D) M1 + net time deposits of commercial banks; M4 = (B) M3 + total Post Office deposits (least liquid). Order (C),(A),(D),(B) = option B.

Q36.
Suppose an Indian manufacturer of steel acquires a steel manufacturing unit in Europe. This type of transactions are recorded in which of the following.
A. Current Account.
B. Capital Account
C. Capital Market
D. Net Invisibles.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Acquiring a foreign firm (foreign direct investment / purchase of foreign assets) is a capital transaction recorded in the Capital Account of the BOP.

Q37.
In deficit condition of Balance of Payment if the central bank sells foreign exchange then this particular transaction is known as ......
A. Official reserve sale.
B. Portfolio Investment.
C. Net Invisibles.
D. Net factor income.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

When the central bank sells foreign exchange from its reserves to finance a BOP deficit, it is an official reserve sale (drawing down official reserves).

Q38.
When an individual buys foreign goods, this spending is known as .....
A. Injection in the economy.
B. Exchange rate market.
C. Leakages from economy.
D. Direct investment.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Spending on imports (foreign goods) is a leakage from the circular flow of domestic income, as it diverts demand abroad.

Q39.
With keeping tax rate (T) constant if government purchases(G) increase, then arrange the following statement considering the effect on total income and output. (A) Rise in Plan Aggregate expenditure. (B) Government runs a deficit when G exceeds T. (C) Equilibrium income level increased. (D) Aggregate demand schedule shifts upward. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (B), (A), (D), (C)
B. (A), (C), (B), (D)
C. (A), (B), (D), (C)
D. (C), (B), (D), (A)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

When G rises with T constant: (A) planned aggregate expenditure rises; (B) government runs a deficit when G exceeds T; (D) the AD schedule shifts upward; (C) equilibrium income increases. Sequence (A),(B),(D),(C) = option C.

Q40.
Arrange the following steps of calculation of National income in sequence. (A) Deduction of intermediate cost (B) Estimation of value of output (C) Add net factor income from abroad (D) Deduction of depreciation and NIT Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B), (C), (D)
B. (A), (C), (B), (D)
C. (B), (A), (D), (C)
D. (C), (D), (A), (B)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Value-added (product) method: (B) estimate value of output; (A) deduct intermediate cost to get GVA/GDP_MP; (D) deduct depreciation and net indirect taxes to get NDP_FC; (C) add net factor income from abroad to get national income (NNP_FC). Order (B),(A),(D),(C) = option C.

OUTPUT AND EMPLOYMENT...
Q41.
Level of employment is determined by which of the following?
A. Output Eqilibrium.
B. Factor of Production
C. Capital Employed.
D. Availability of Raw Material.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The passage states 'The equilibrium output in the economy also determines the level of employment.' Hence level of employment is determined by output equilibrium.

Q42.
Full employment level is the level where ........
A. Everyone in the economy got employment
B. Maximum Capital investment.
C. all the factors of production are fully employed in the production process.
D. Excessive Demand.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Passage: 'Full employment level of income is that level of income where all the factors of production are fully employed in the production process.' Option C is verbatim.

Q43.
The level of output is determined by the .....
A. Full Employment.
B. Excessive Demand.
C. Marginal Output.
D. Equality of Income (Y) with Aggregate Demand (AD)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Passage: 'the level of output determined by the equality of Y with AD'. So output is determined by equality of income (Y) with aggregate demand (AD).

Q44.
If output equilibrium is less than the full employment level, then this condition is known as:
A. Deficient Demand.
B. Constant Demand.
C. Marginal Demand.
D. Aggregate Demand.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Passage: if equilibrium output is less than full employment output, 'This situation is called the situation of deficient demand.'

Q45.
Excess demand is the situation where ......
A. Output level is less than the full employment level.
B. Output level is equal to the full employment level.
C. Demand is more than output level at full employment level.
D. Output level is marginally increasing.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Passage: excess demand occurs because 'the demand is more than the level of output produced at full employment level.' Option C.

GST: One Nation, One Tax, One Market...
Q46.
Goods & Services Tax (GST) is which of the following type of tax?
A. Destination Based Tax.
B. Direct Tax.
C. Local Tax
D. Lump Sum Tax.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Passage: GST 'is a destination based consumption tax.' It is an indirect, destination-based tax. Option A.

Q47.
Which of the following feature of GST removes/reduces the cascading effect?
A. Destination Based Tax
B. Unified Tax
C. Input Tax Credit(ITC)
D. Unified Market.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Passage: under GST 'the credit of tax paid at the previous stage is available for set off at the next stage,' i.e. Input Tax Credit removes the cascading (tax-on-tax) effect.

Q48.
GST is the amalgamation of which of the following taxes?
A. All Central taxes
B. All State Taxes
C. Large number of central and state indirect taxes
D. Large number of central direct taxes.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Passage: GST 'has amalgamated a large number of Central and State taxes and cesses' (indirect taxes like excise, service tax, VAT, octroi). Option C.

Q49.
From the following which product has been kept out from the GST ambit?
A. Gold
B. Silver
C. Luxury Consumables.
D. Tobacco.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Among these, petroleum, alcohol and tobacco products lie outside/partly outside GST; tobacco also attracts central excise over and above GST, so it is treated as kept out of the pure GST ambit. Gold and silver are within GST. Option D.

Q50.
Why GST is considered as unified tax system?
A. Because it is combination of multiple taxes.
B. Because now country have only GST as indirect tax.
C. Because it brought uniformity in tax rate across the country.
D. Because it is a simple tax.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Passage: GST 'is applicable throughout the country with one rate for one type of goods/service' establishing 'parity in taxation across the country' — uniform tax rate nationwide makes it a unified system. Option C.

Original question paper source: National Testing Agency (NTA), CUET (UG) 2025. Reproduced for educational use. Answers & explanations by UniDrill.