← All previous-year papers

CUET 2025 General Test Question Paper with Answers & Solutions

50 questions with answer key & explanations

Q1.
If 36 : 84 :: 42 : X, then the value of X, is:
A. 18
B. 98
C. 72
D. 48
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The ratio $36:84$ simplifies to $3:7$. So $42:X = 3:7$, giving $X = \frac{42\times 7}{3} = 98$.

Q2.
Ram purchased a watch at a cost of $\left(\frac{9}{10}\right)^{th}$ of the original cost and sold at 8% more than the original cost. His profit/loss is
A. 20% profit
B. 20% loss
C. 18% profit
D. 18% loss
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Let original cost $=C$. Cost price $=0.9C$, selling price $=1.08C$. Profit $=1.08C-0.9C=0.18C$. Profit% $=\frac{0.18C}{0.9C}\times100 = 20\%$ profit.

Q3.
Arrange the simple interest of the following cases in decreasing order- (A) The simple interest on Rs 6600 at 5% per annum for 2 yrs. (B) The simple interest on Rs 200 at 6% per annum for 5 yrs. (C) The simple interest on Rs 840 at 5% per annum for 4 yrs. (D) The simple interest on Rs 5000 at 12% per annum for 2 yrs. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B), (C), (D)
B. (B), (A), (D), (C)
C. (B), (A), (C), (D)
D. (D), (A), (C), (B)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

$SI=\frac{PRT}{100}$. (A)$=\frac{6600\times5\times2}{100}=660$; (B)$=\frac{200\times6\times5}{100}=60$; (C)$=\frac{840\times5\times4}{100}=168$; (D)$=\frac{5000\times12\times2}{100}=1200$. Decreasing order: $1200(D),660(A),168(C),60(B)$ = (D),(A),(C),(B).

Q4.
Four circles of equal radius are drawn with centers, A, B, C and D such that ABCD is a square of side 14 cm and the circles touch externally as in the figure. The area of the shaded region bounded by the 4 circles is: (Take $\pi = \frac{22}{7}$)
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. 24 cm$^2$
B. 42 cm$^2$
C. 96 cm$^2$
D. 54 cm$^2$
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Radius $r=\frac{14}{2}=7$ cm. The four quarter-circles inside the square together make one full circle: area $=\pi r^2=\frac{22}{7}\times7^2=154$ cm$^2$. Square area $=14^2=196$ cm$^2$. Shaded region $=196-154=42$ cm$^2$.

Q5.
The distance between points A (-5, 7) and B (-1, 3) is:
A. 4 units
B. 6 units
C. $4\sqrt{2}$ units
D. 7 units
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

$d=\sqrt{(-1-(-5))^2+(3-7)^2}=\sqrt{4^2+(-4)^2}=\sqrt{16+16}=\sqrt{32}=4\sqrt{2}$ units.

Q6.
The marks out of 50 obtained by 100 students in a test are given below as: | Marks obtained | 20 | 25 | 28 | 29 | 33 | 38 | 42 | 43 | | Number of students | 6 | 20 | 24 | 28 | 15 | 4 | 2 | 1 | Find the value of the (3 mode - 2 median).
A. 27.5
B. 31
C. 30
D. 28.8
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Mode = value with highest frequency = 29 (frequency 28). For median, $N=100$, so average of 50th and 51st values. Cumulative frequencies: 20→6, 25→26, 28→50, 29→78. The 50th value is 28 and 51st is 29, so median $=\frac{28+29}{2}=28.5$. Then $3(29)-2(28.5)=87-57=30$.

Q7.
Suppose we throw a dice once. Then, which one of the following is/are correct? (A) The probability of getting a number greater than 4 is $\frac{1}{3}$. (B) The probability of getting a number greater than or equal to 4 is $\frac{1}{3}$. (C) The probability of getting a number less than or equal to 3 is $\frac{1}{2}$. (D) The probability of getting a number less than or equal to 6 is 1. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B) and (D) only
B. (B), (C) and (D) only
C. (A), (C) and (D) only
D. (A) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

(A) Numbers $>4$ are {5,6}: $P=\frac{2}{6}=\frac{1}{3}$ ✓. (B) Numbers $\geq4$ are {4,5,6}: $P=\frac{3}{6}=\frac{1}{2}\neq\frac{1}{3}$ ✗. (C) Numbers $\leq3$ are {1,2,3}: $P=\frac{3}{6}=\frac{1}{2}$ ✓. (D) Numbers $\leq6$: all outcomes, $P=1$ ✓. Correct: (A),(C),(D).

Q8.
Match List-I with List-II | List-I | List-II | | (A) $^8P_3 - {}^{10}C_3$ | (I) 6 | | (B) $^8P_5$ | (II) 21 | | (C) $^nP_4 = 360$, then find n. | (III) 216 | | (D) $^nC_2 = 210$, find n. | (IV) 6720 | Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
B. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
C. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
D. (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

(A) $^8P_3-{}^{10}C_3=336-120=216$ → (III). (B) $^8P_5=8\times7\times6\times5\times4=6720$ → (IV). (C) $^nP_4=360 \Rightarrow n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)=360=6\cdot5\cdot4\cdot3 \Rightarrow n=6$ → (I). (D) $^nC_2=210 \Rightarrow \frac{n(n-1)}{2}=210 \Rightarrow n(n-1)=420=21\times20 \Rightarrow n=21$ → (II). So (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-I, (D)-II.

Q9.
The present age of a father is 4 years more than double the age of his son. After 10 years, the father's age is 30 years more than his son. Then the present age of father is:
A. 26 years
B. 28 years
C. 56 years
D. 60 years
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Let son's age $=S$, father's $=F$. $F=2S+4$. After 10 years: $F+10=(S+10)+30 \Rightarrow F=S+30$. So $2S+4=S+30 \Rightarrow S=26$, and $F=26+30=56$ years.

Q10.
The angles of elevation of the top of a tower from two points at a distance of 5 meters and 20 meters along the same straight line from the base of the tower, are complementary. Find the height of the tower.
A. 10 m
B. 15 m
C. $10\sqrt{3}$ m
D. 20 m
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

If angles at distances $a$ and $b$ are complementary, height $h=\sqrt{ab}$. Here $h=\sqrt{5\times20}=\sqrt{100}=10$ m.

Q11.
The base diameter of a cylinder is 21 cm and the height is 28 cm, then: (A) Radius of cylinder = 10.5 cm (B) Volume = 12936 cm$^3$ (C) Curved Surface Area = 1848 cm$^2$ (D) Total surface area = 2541 cm$^2$ Which of the following is/ are correct? Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B) and (D) only
B. (A), (C) and (D) only
C. (B), (C) and (D) only
D. (A), (B) and (C) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

$r=\frac{21}{2}=10.5$ cm → (A) ✓. Volume $=\pi r^2 h=\frac{22}{7}\times10.5^2\times28=9702$ cm$^3 \neq 12936$ → (B) ✗. CSA $=2\pi r h=2\times\frac{22}{7}\times10.5\times28=1848$ cm$^2$ → (C) ✓. TSA $=2\pi r(r+h)=2\times\frac{22}{7}\times10.5\times38.5=2541$ cm$^2$ → (D) ✓. Correct: (A),(C),(D).

Q12.
P and Q can complete a job in 24 days working together. P can alone complete it in 32 days. Both of them worked together for 8 days and then P left. The number of days Q will take to complete the remaining job is:
A. 26 days
B. 30 days
C. 64 days
D. 60 days
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Together rate $=\frac{1}{24}$, P's rate $=\frac{1}{32}$, so Q's rate $=\frac{1}{24}-\frac{1}{32}=\frac{4-3}{96}=\frac{1}{96}$. Work in 8 days together $=\frac{8}{24}=\frac{1}{3}$. Remaining $=\frac{2}{3}$. Time for Q $=\frac{2/3}{1/96}=\frac{2}{3}\times96=64$ days.

Q13.
A person rows a boat 10 kms along the stream in 30 minutes and returns to the starting point in 40 minutes. The speed of the stream is:
A. 17.5 km/h
B. 2.5 km/h
C. 5 km/h
D. 15 km/h
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Downstream speed $=\frac{10}{0.5}=20$ km/h. Upstream speed $=\frac{10}{40/60}=\frac{10}{2/3}=15$ km/h. Speed of stream $=\frac{20-15}{2}=2.5$ km/h.

Q14.
The unit place digit of the number $(37)^2$ is:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 7
D. 9
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

$37^2=1369$. The units digit is $9$ (since $7^2=49$ ends in 9).

Q15.
In a flower bed there are 23 rose plants in the first row, 21 in the second, 19 in the third and so on. There are 5 rose plants in the last row. Then the number of rows in the flower bed is:
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

AP: $a=23$, $d=-2$, last term $=5$. $5=23+(n-1)(-2) \Rightarrow -18=-2(n-1) \Rightarrow n-1=9 \Rightarrow n=10$ rows.

Q16.
Find the term which doesn't fit into the series given below: H4Q, K10N, N20K, Q43H, T90E
A. H4Q
B. K10N
C. Q43H
D. T90E
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

First letters H,K,N,Q,T increase by 3 each ✓; last letters Q,N,K,H,E decrease by 3 each ✓. The numbers should follow doubling: $4,10,20,40,80$ (each roughly double the previous: $4\to10,10\to20,20\to40,40\to80$). The given term Q43H breaks the pattern (should be 40, giving Q40H). Hence Q43H does not fit.

Q17.
Given figure is embedded in any one of the four option figures. Find the option figure which contains the given figure as its part.
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. Option 1: A rectangle containing a network of straight lines emanating from the lower-left region with a small stepped (notched) shape in the upper-right corner.
B. Option 2: A rectangle with multiple straight lines radiating from a point on the right edge toward the left, with a small stepped (notched) shape at the upper-right corner.
C. Option 3: A rectangle containing the embedded quadrilateral shape with a triangle on the left side; lines form an arrow/envelope-like pattern.
D. Option 4: A rectangle with a vertical line in the middle and a diagonal line forming a triangle at the top-right, with a short segment dropping below.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Option 3 is explicitly described as containing the embedded quadrilateral shape (the key figure) together with an additional triangle, forming an envelope-like pattern. The other options do not contain the complete quadrilateral. Hence Option 3 contains the given figure as its part.

Q18.
A clock is set right at 5 a.m. The clock loses 16 minutes in 24 hours. What will be the correct approximate time when the clock indicates 10 p.m. on 4th day?
A. 11 p.m
B. 9 p.m
C. 11 a.m
D. 11.30 p.m
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

From 5 a.m. (day 1) to 10 p.m. on the 4th day, the faulty clock shows $3\times24 + 17 = 89$ hours. Since the clock loses 16 min in 24 h, it runs at $\frac{1424}{1440}$ of true rate; so $1424$ clock-minutes correspond to $1440$ true minutes. True time elapsed $=89\times\frac{1440}{1424}\approx90$ hours. Adding 90 hours to 5 a.m. = 3 days (72 h) + 18 h $=$ 5 a.m. + 18 h $=$ 11 p.m.

Q19.
If 1st July 2022 was Sunday, then what was the day on 1st November 2022?
A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Thursday
D. Friday
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Days from 1 July to 1 November: July (31) + August (31) + September (30) + October (31) $=123$ days. $123 \bmod 7 = 4$ (since $119=17\times7$). Sunday $+4$ days $=$ Thursday.

Q20.
Complete the following figure matrix.
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. Option 1: A rectangle divided by both diagonals, with the upper-left triangle filled with diagonal hatching lines.
B. Option 2: A rectangle divided by both diagonals (X), with the left triangle and part of the top hatched.
C. Option 3: A rectangle with a single diagonal from top-left to bottom-right, lower-right triangle plain (mostly unshaded).
D. Option 4: A rectangle filled entirely with horizontal/diagonal hatching lines and a diagonal across it.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Across each row the hatching increases progressively while the dividing lines (here both diagonals forming an X) are retained. Row 3 has the X-divided rectangle with hatching growing from none → one triangle → more. The missing figure keeps the X (both diagonals) and adds further hatching, matching Option 2 (both diagonals with the left triangle and part of the top hatched).

Q21.
If A + B means A is the brother of B; A * B means A is the sister of B; A # B means A is the daughter of B and A - B means A is the wife of B, then in the expression U # C - D + H + T, how is H related to U?
A. Father
B. Uncle
C. Aunt
D. Brother
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

U # C: U is daughter of C. C - D: C is wife of D, so D is U's father. D + H: D is brother of H, so H is a male sibling of U's father. H + T: H is brother of T. Therefore H is the brother of U's father → H is U's uncle.

Q22.
Choose the correct mirror image of fig(x), when mirror is placed at the right side.
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. Option 1: A triangle (apex up) with a small ball/circle near the top-left of the apex, an upward arrow in the centre-left, and a small filled black triangle at the bottom-right inside — same orientation as fig(x) (not mirrored).
B. Option 2: A triangle with the ball at top, the filled black triangle at the bottom-left and the arrow at centre-right — laterally inverted (correct mirror).
C. Option 3: A triangle with the ball near the top, filled black triangle at bottom-left and arrow at right.
D. Option 4: A triangle with the ball at top, a larger filled black triangle at the bottom-left and the arrow shifted right.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

A right-side mirror laterally inverts left and right. In fig(x) the black triangle is at the bottom-right and the ball is top-left; in the mirror image the black triangle moves to the bottom-left and other elements flip accordingly, keeping the same sizes. Option 2 is the correctly laterally-inverted image.

Q23.
In a certain code, ALPHABET is written as TEBAHPLA. How is DECIPHER written in that code?
A. REPHCIED
B. REPHICED
C. REIPHCED
D. REHPICED
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

ALPHABET reversed letter-by-letter gives TEBAHPLA, so the code simply reverses the word. Reversing DECIPHER: D-E-C-I-P-H-E-R → R-E-H-P-I-C-E-D = REHPICED.

Q24.
In the following options, four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while the fourth one is different. Choose out the odd one.
A. Milk
B. Water
C. Oil
D. Sugar
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Milk, Water and Oil are liquids, whereas Sugar is a solid. Hence Sugar is the odd one out.

Q25.
A girl walks 20 meters towards North. Then, turning to her left, she walks 50 meters. Then, turning to her right, she walks 40 metres. Again, she turns to her right and walks 50 metres. How far is she from her initial position?
A. 60 metres
B. 50 metres
C. 20 metres
D. 40 metres
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Start at (0,0). North 20 → (0,20). Left (West) 50 → (-50,20). Right (North) 40 → (-50,60). Right (East) 50 → (0,60). Distance from start $=\sqrt{0^2+60^2}=60$ m.

Q26.
Thirty children are standing in a row facing North. If in this row Neelam is seventeenth from the left then what is the position of Neelam from the right?
A. 17
B. 13
C. 14
D. 15
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Position from right $=$ Total $-$ position from left $+1 = 30-17+1 = 14$.

Q27.
What will come in place of the question mark in the following numerical series? 6, 9, 14, 21, 30, ?
A. 36
B. 41
C. 62
D. 59
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Differences are 3, 5, 7, 9 (consecutive odd numbers), so next difference is 11. $30+11=41$.

Q28.
Find the missing number from the given alternatives. | 6 | 10 | 14 | | 9 | 15 | 21 | | 12 | 20 | ? |
A. 28
B. 36
C. 42
D. 43
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Each column is an AP: column 3 is 14, 21, ? with common difference 7, so $?=21+7=28$. (Also column 1: +3; column 2: +5; column 3: +7.)

Q29.
Seven people T, U, V, W, X, Y & Z are standing in a single line facing a milk - booth. X is somewhere ahead of Y. There is exactly one person standing between V and Z. W is immediately behind T. Y is behind both U & W. If W & V are fourth and fifth in line respectively, then which of the following must be true?
A. T is first
B. Z is first
C. Y is sixth
D. Y is seventh
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

W=4, V=5. 'W immediately behind T' means T is just ahead → T=3. One person between V(5) and Z means Z=7 or Z=3; since T=3, Z=7. Y is behind both U and W(4), so Y>4; positions 5,7 are taken by V,Z, so Y=6. Remaining positions 1,2 go to U and X (with X ahead of Y, satisfied). Thus Y is sixth must be true.

Q30.
Select the figures which, when fitted with each other, will form a complete square.
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. (A), (B) and (D) only
B. (A), (B) and (C) only
C. (A),(B),(C)&(D)
D. (B),(C), & (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The four pieces are complementary jigsaw cut-outs: piece (A)'s arrowhead notch fits piece (D)'s L-foot protrusion, and piece (B)'s V-notch is filled by piece (C)'s slanted trapezoid, with all four interlocking to tile a complete square. Hence all four pieces (A),(B),(C),(D) are required.

Q31.
The first Indigenous vaccine of COVID-19 developed in India was....
A. COVAXIN
B. COVISHIELD
C. SPUTNIK-V
D. MODERNA
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

COVAXIN, developed by Bharat Biotech with ICMR, was India's first indigenous (wholly home-developed) COVID-19 vaccine. Covishield was manufactured in India but based on the Oxford-AstraZeneca technology; Sputnik-V and Moderna are foreign.

Q32.
Kinematics deal with the
A. Motion of an object
B. Material property of an object
C. Elastic property of an object
D. Optical property of an object
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Kinematics is the branch of mechanics that describes the motion of objects (displacement, velocity, acceleration) without reference to the forces causing it.

Q33.
The gas which is used to make chloroform is
A. Cyanogen
B. Radon
C. Propane
D. Methane
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Chloroform (CHCl3) is industrially produced by the chlorination of methane (CH4), which is a gas. Among the options, methane is the gas used.

Q34.
The first Tirthankara in Jainism is believed to be......
A. Arishtanemi
B. Sambhavnath
C. Rishabhnath
D. Mahavira
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Rishabhnath (Adinath) is regarded as the first of the 24 Tirthankaras in Jainism. Mahavira was the 24th and last.

Q35.
The Ilbary dynasty is famously known as
A. The Slave Dynasty
B. The Khilji Dynasty
C. The Tughlaq Dynasty
D. The Lodhi Dynasty
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The Ilbari (Mamluk) dynasty, founded by Qutb-ud-din Aibak and continued by Iltutmish and Balban, is commonly called the Slave Dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate.

Q36.
The slogan, 'Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it' is associated with
A. The Khilafat Movement
B. The Poona Pact
C. Civil Disobedience Movement
D. Home Rule Movement
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

The slogan was given by Bal Gangadhar Tilak, who launched the Home Rule Movement (1916). Hence it is associated with the Home Rule Movement.

Q37.
Which of the following statements is incorrect for Chandrayaan-3?
A. Launched from Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre on July 14, 2023
B. India became the 4th country to land on the Moon.
C. It consists of a lunar lander named Vikram and a rover named Pragyan.
D. It became the first mission to land near the lunar South Pole.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Chandrayaan-3 was launched from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC SHAR), Sriharikota, on 14 July 2023 — not from the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre. Statements B (4th country to soft-land), C (lander Vikram, rover Pragyan) and D (first near the lunar South Pole) are correct. Hence A is incorrect.

Q38.
The IUCN Red List is a catalogue of --
A. Species threatened with risk of extinction
B. Red Sea
C. Hot Springs
D. Rivers
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species is the global inventory of the conservation status of species, cataloguing those threatened with the risk of extinction.

Q39.
Match List-I with List-II | List-I (Author) | List-II (Novel/Play) | | (A) William Shakespeare | (I) Man of Destiny | | (B) Lewis Carroll | (II) The Tempest | | (C) E M Forster | (III) Through the Looking Glass | | (D) Bernard Shaw | (IV) A Passage to India | Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
B. (A) (II), (B) (III), (C) (IV), (D) (I)
C. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
D. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Shakespeare → The Tempest (II); Lewis Carroll → Through the Looking Glass (III); E M Forster → A Passage to India (IV); Bernard Shaw → The Man of Destiny (I). So (A)-II, (B)-III, (C)-IV, (D)-I.

Q40.
In humans, calcium plays a role in (A) Bone formation (B) Blood clotting (C) Muscle function (D) Blood formation Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B) and (D) only
B. (A), (B) and (C) only
C. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
D. (B), (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Calcium is essential for bone formation (A), blood clotting (B) and muscle contraction/function (C). Blood formation (haematopoiesis) requires iron, not calcium, so (D) is incorrect. Hence (A),(B),(C) only.

Q41.
Arrange the sequence of national events in the order of their occurrence. (A) Swachh Bharat Abhiyaan (B) Mars Orbiter Mission (C) Right to Information Act (D) Economic Liberalization Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B), (C), (D)
B. (B), (A), (C), (D)
C. (B), (A), (D), (C)
D. (D), (C), (B), (A)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Economic Liberalization (1991) → Right to Information Act (2005) → Mars Orbiter Mission (2013) → Swachh Bharat Abhiyaan (2014). Order: (D),(C),(B),(A).

Q42.
Arrange the following international events in chronological sequence of their occurrence. (A) Fall of the Berlin Wall (B) Apartheid ends in South Africa (C) Adoption of Sustainable Development Goals by UN Member States. (D) Establishment of the United Nations Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B), (C), (D)
B. (B), (A), (C), (D)
C. (B), (A), (D), (C)
D. (D), (A), (B), (C)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Establishment of UN (1945) → Fall of Berlin Wall (1989) → Apartheid ends in South Africa (1994) → Adoption of SDGs (2015). Order: (D),(A),(B),(C).

Q43.
The strait that separates the North Andaman islands from the group of islands of Myanmar is...
A. Andaman Strait
B. Coco Strait
C. Preparis Strait
D. Cabot Strait
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The Coco Channel (Coco Strait) separates the North Andaman Islands (India) from the Coco Islands belonging to Myanmar. (Preparis Strait lies further north between Coco Islands and Preparis Island.)

Q44.
Article 9 of the Indian Constitution deals with
A. Persons who migrated to India from Pakistan
B. Indians who reside outside India
C. Persons who voluntarily acquire foreign citizenship
D. Right to citizenship at the commencement of the constitution
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Article 9 states that a person who voluntarily acquires the citizenship of a foreign State shall not be a citizen of India. Hence it deals with persons voluntarily acquiring foreign citizenship.

Q45.
The main purpose of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) compensation fund is
A. To provide funding for infrastructure development.
B. To provide relief to taxpayers who have paid excess tax.
C. To support the development of micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs)
D. To compensate states for the loss of revenue due to the implementation of GST.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

The GST Compensation Fund (financed by the GST compensation cess) was created to compensate States for any loss of revenue arising from the implementation of GST for the first five years.

Q46.
Clouds are the masses of small water droplets or tiny ice crystals. (A) Clouds are classified according to their appearance and height. (B) Cirrus clouds are high altitude clouds, which are usually feathery shaped and composed entirely of ice crystals. (C) Nimbostratus clouds are mid level clouds producing sporadic rain. (D) Altocumulus are the heap-like clouds having flat bases and rounded tops. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B) and (D) only
B. (A), (B) and (C) only
C. (B), (C) and (D) only
D. (A), (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

(A) Clouds are classified by appearance and height ✓. (B) Cirrus are high feathery ice-crystal clouds ✓. (D) Altocumulus are mid-level heap-like clouds with flat bases and rounded tops ✓. (C) is incorrect because nimbostratus clouds produce continuous (steady), not sporadic, rain. Hence (A),(B),(D) only.

Q47.
Aizawl is the capital of
A. Meghalaya
B. Nagaland
C. Mizoram
D. Tripura
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Aizawl is the capital of Mizoram. (Shillong–Meghalaya, Kohima–Nagaland, Agartala–Tripura.)

Q48.
Match List-I with List-II Match the countries with their respective currencies: | List-I (Country) | List-II (Currency) | | (A) Japan | (I) Krone | | (B) Russia | (II) Yen | | (C) China | (III) Ruble | | (D) Norway | (IV) Yuan | Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
B. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
C. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
D. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Japan → Yen (II); Russia → Ruble (III); China → Yuan (IV); Norway → Krone (I). So (A)-II, (B)-III, (C)-IV, (D)-I.

Q49.
The river which flows through the Grand Canyon of India, also known as the Gandikota Gorge is
A. Ganga
B. Krishna
C. Penna
D. Brahmaputra
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The Gandikota Gorge ('Grand Canyon of India') in Andhra Pradesh is carved by the Penna (Pennar) River.

Q50.
The National Emblem of India has been adopted from the capital of King ______ which was situated in ________.
A. Akbar, Agra
B. Ashoka, Sarnath
C. Ashoka, Sanchi
D. Akbar, Delhi
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

India's National Emblem is adapted from the Lion Capital of Ashoka, which was erected at Sarnath. Hence King Ashoka, situated at Sarnath.

Original question paper source: National Testing Agency (NTA), CUET (UG) 2025. Reproduced for educational use. Answers & explanations by UniDrill.