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CUET 2025 Geography Question Paper with Answers & Solutions

50 questions with answer key & explanations

Q1.
The following activity can be termed as an example of possibilism:
A. Forest worship
B. Ports on the coasts
C. Being afraid of the fury of nature
D. Collecting fruits and herbs from the forest
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Possibilism means humans use technology to modify nature and create possibilities. Building ports on coasts shows humans turning natural conditions into useful possibilities. The others (forest worship, fear of nature, collecting forest produce) reflect environmental determinism/dependence on nature.

Q2.
Which of the following statements are correct for 'technology'? (A) Understanding of concepts of friction and heat enabled us to conquer many diseases. (B) Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society. (C) Technology loosens the shackles of the environment on human beings. (D) Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B) and (D) only
B. (A), (B) and (C) only
C. (A), (C) and (D) only
D. (B), (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Statement (A) is incorrect: understanding of germs and DNA (not friction and heat) helped conquer diseases; friction and heat helped discover fire. Statements (B), (C), (D) are all correct per NCERT. Hence (B), (C) and (D) only.

Q3.
Which one of the following is a pull factor of migration ?
A. Unemployment
B. Poor living conditions
C. Political turmoil
D. Pleasant climate
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Pull factors attract migrants to a destination (better opportunities, pleasant climate). Unemployment, poor living conditions and political turmoil are push factors that drive people away from the place of origin.

Q4.
Which of the following countries has the highest Human Development Index (2021)?
A. Germany
B. Switzerland
C. Egypt
D. Nepal
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

In the 2021 HDR, Switzerland topped the HDI rankings. Among the given options Switzerland has the highest HDI, ahead of Germany; Egypt and Nepal are far lower.

Q5.
Arrange the following countries in descending order according to their population. (A) India (B) Indonesia (C) Nigeria (D) Mexico Choose the correct option :
A. (A), (B), (C), (D)
B. (A), (C), (B), (D)
C. (A), (D), (C), (B)
D. (C), (B), (D), (A)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Approximate populations: India ~1400 million, Indonesia ~275 million, Nigeria ~220 million, Mexico ~130 million. Descending order: India, Indonesia, Nigeria, Mexico = (A), (B), (C), (D).

Q6.
______ add value to natural resources by transforming raw materials into valuable products.
A. Secondary activities
B. Tertiary activities
C. Quaternary activities
D. Quinary activities
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Secondary activities (manufacturing) add value to natural resources by transforming raw materials into finished, valuable products. This is the NCERT definition of secondary activities.

Q7.
Modern large scale manufacturing doesn't have the following characteristic:
A. Specialisation of Skills
B. Technological Innovation
C. Mechanisation
D. Low level capital investment
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Modern large-scale manufacturing requires huge capital investment, not low. Its characteristics include specialisation of skills, technological innovation and mechanisation. So 'Low level capital investment' is not a characteristic.

Q8.
Which of the following is the main reason for tourist attraction of Southern Europe and the Mediterranean lands?
A. Climate
B. Culture
C. History and Art
D. Economy
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Per NCERT, the warm, pleasant Mediterranean climate is the main attraction drawing tourists to Southern Europe and the Mediterranean lands.

Q9.
Among the following identify the primary economic activity?
A. Education
B. Forest Safari
C. Fishing
D. IT industry
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Primary activities involve extraction/use of natural resources. Fishing is a primary activity. Education and IT are tertiary/quaternary; forest safari is tertiary (tourism).

Q10.
Which among these does not fall under Quinary Activities?
A. Specialists
B. Consultants
C. Financial Banking
D. Policy formulators
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Quinary activities involve the highest level of decision making - specialists, consultants and policy formulators. Financial banking is a tertiary/quaternary service, not quinary.

Q11.
Match List-I with List-II List-I (Name of the Pack Animals): (A) Mules (B) Camels (C) Reindeer (D) Horses List-II (Areas where they are used as means of transportation): (I) Mountains (II) Siberia (III) Deserts (IV) Western Countries Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
B. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
C. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
D. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Mules-Mountains (I), Camels-Deserts (III), Reindeer-Siberia (II), Horses-Western countries (IV). This matches option B.

Q12.
What are the different names of Shifting Cultivation ? (A) Jhuming (B) Chinook (C) Milpa (D) Plantation agriculture Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B) and (D) only
B. (A) and (C) only
C. (C) and (D) only
D. (B), (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Shifting cultivation is called Jhuming (NE India) and Milpa (Mexico/Central America). Chinook is a wind; plantation agriculture is a different type. Hence (A) and (C) only.

Q13.
The Channel Tunnel connects which of the following pair of cities?
A. London-Moscow
B. London-Paris
C. London-Brussels
D. Berlin-London
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The Channel Tunnel under the English Channel connects London (UK) with Paris (France), as stated in NCERT.

Q14.
Which of the following is NOT the basis of international trade?
A. Difference in national resources
B. Stage of economic development
C. Extent of foreign investment
D. Even distribution of resources
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

International trade arises from UNEVEN distribution of resources, differences in resources and stages of development. Even distribution of resources would eliminate the need for trade, so it is NOT a basis.

Q15.
Big Inch, a famous pipeline which carries petroleum from the oil wells, is located in which one of the following countries?
A. U.S.A.
B. Canada
C. Brazil
D. India
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The 'Big Inch' pipeline carries petroleum from the oil wells of the Gulf of Mexico to the north-eastern states in the U.S.A., per NCERT.

Q16.
The roads laid along international boundaries are called :
A. International Roads
B. International Highways
C. District Roads
D. Border Roads
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Roads laid along international boundaries are called Border Roads, constructed by the Border Roads Organisation in India.

Q17.
Which of the following transportation mode is most suited for large volumes of bulky materials over long distances within a country?
A. Air Transportation
B. Road Transportation
C. Rail Transportation
D. Pipelines
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Rail transportation is best suited for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances within a country. Air is costly, road is for shorter distances, pipelines carry liquids/gases only.

Q18.
Identify the correct statements about pipelines. (A) Pipelines are extensively used to transport liquid and gases. (B) Pipelines can also be used to transport liquified coal. (C) Milk is not supplied through pipelines in any country of the world as it is unhealthy. (D) LPG is supplied only through gas cylinders for safety reasons. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (C) and (D) only
B. (A), (B) and (C) only
C. (A) and (B) only
D. (B), (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Pipelines transport liquids and gases (A correct) and can transport solids converted to slurry like liquefied coal (B correct). (C) is wrong since milk IS supplied through pipelines in New Zealand; (D) is wrong since LPG/gas is also supplied through pipelines. Hence (A) and (B) only.

Q19.
Arrange the following railway stations of the Trans Siberian Railway from west to east. (A) Moscow (B) Kazan (C) Omsk (D) Chita Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (C), (B), (D)
B. (C), (A), (B), (D)
C. (A), (B), (C), (D)
D. (C), (B), (D), (A)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

West to east along the Trans-Siberian Railway: Moscow, Kazan, Omsk, then Chita (towards Vladivostok). Order = (A), (B), (C), (D).

Q20.
Which one out of the following is least urbanized state of India?
A. Himachal Pradesh
B. Goa
C. Rajasthan
D. Maharashtra
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Himachal Pradesh has the lowest level of urbanisation among these (about 10%). Goa and Maharashtra are highly urbanized; Rajasthan is more urbanized than HP.

Q21.
Which of the following age group belongs to the adolescents population?
A. 5-10 Years
B. 10-19 Years
C. 20-30 Years
D. 30-45 Years
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The adolescent population, as per NCERT, is the age group of 10-19 years.

Q22.
Arrange the following Indian towns from ancient to modern period according to their times of evolution. (A) Chandigarh (B) Nagpur (C) Madurai (D) Surat Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B), (C), (D)
B. (A), (C), (B), (D)
C. (B), (A), (D), (C)
D. (C), (B), (D), (A)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Madurai is an ancient town, Surat a medieval town, Nagpur grew in the colonial/British period, Chandigarh is a modern (post-independence) planned city. Ancient to modern: Madurai, Surat, Nagpur, Chandigarh? Listed (C),(D),(B),(A) gives Madurai, Surat, Nagpur, Chandigarh = option D.

Q23.
Match List-I with List-II List-I (Linguistic family): (A) Indo-European (Aryan) (B) Sino-Tibetan (Kirata) (C) Austric (Nishada) (D) Dravidian (Dravida) List-II (Branch/Group): (I) Iranian (II) Munda (III) North Assam (IV) North Dravidian Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
B. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
C. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
D. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Indo-European (Aryan)-Iranian (I); Sino-Tibetan (Kirata)-North Assam (III); Austric (Nishada)-Munda (II); Dravidian (Dravida)-North Dravidian (IV). This matches option B.

Q24.
Which of the following criteria is NOT correct as per the definition of urban settlement given by the Census of India in 1991?
A. Place having minimum population of 5000.
B. At Least 50 percent of male workers are engaged in non-agricultural pursuits.
C. Place having a density of population of at least 400 person per square kilometer.
D. All places which have a municipality, corporation, cantonment board or Notified town area committee.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

As per Census 1991 criteria, at least 75% (not 50%) of male working population should be engaged in non-agricultural pursuits. The other criteria (population 5000, density 400/sq km, statutory towns) are correct. So (B) is incorrect.

Q25.
Match List-I with List-II List-I (Town Name): (A) Chandigarh (B) Kandla (C) Jharia (D) Jalandhar List-II (Town Type): (I) Administrative Town (II) Transport Town (III) Mining Town (IV) Garrisson Town Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
B. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
C. (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
D. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Chandigarh-Administrative (I); Kandla-Transport/port (II); Jharia-Mining (III) coal; Jalandhar-Garrison/Cantonment (IV). Matches option A.

Q26.
Post independence, the Indian government imported the High Yield Varieties of wheat from ________.
A. Philippines
B. Mexico
C. Russia
D. Japan
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

HYV wheat seeds were imported from Mexico (Norman Borlaug's varieties) during the Green Revolution. HYV rice came from the Philippines (IRRI).

Q27.
Which of the following state does NOT have high levels of groundwater utilization?
A. Odisha
B. Haryana
C. Punjab
D. Tamil Nadu
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Punjab, Haryana and Tamil Nadu over-utilize groundwater (over 85%). Odisha has low groundwater utilization, so it does NOT have high levels.

Q28.
Mumbai High is famous for ________.
A. Petroleum Reserves
B. Coal Reserves
C. Iron Ore Reserves
D. Copper Reserves
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Mumbai High is an offshore oilfield in the Arabian Sea famous for petroleum (crude oil) reserves.

Q29.
Which of the followings is a target group development programme?
A. Command Area Development Programme
B. Drought Prone Area Development Programme
C. Desert Development Programme
D. Small Farmers Development Agency
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Small Farmers Development Agency (SFDA) targets a specific group (small farmers), making it a target-group programme. The others are area-based development programmes.

Q30.
Arrange the following river basins in descending order according to their size. (A) Mahanadi (B) Godavari (C) Ganga (D) Pennar Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (D), (B), (C), (A)
B. (B), (C), (A), (D)
C. (B), (A), (D), (C)
D. (C), (B), (A), (D)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Basin sizes: Ganga (largest, ~8.6 lakh sq km) > Godavari (~3.1 lakh) > Mahanadi (~1.4 lakh) > Pennar (smallest). Descending: Ganga, Godavari, Mahanadi, Pennar = (C),(B),(A),(D) = option D.

Q31.
Identify the correct statements about Common Property Resources. (A) According to ownership, land can be classified as - Private land and Common Property Resources. (B) The land owned by the state meant for use of the community is called Common Property Resource. (C) The Common Property Resource is of particular relevance for the livelihood of landless and marginal farmers in rural areas. (D) The ownership of Common Property Resource land lies with a group of people living in that area. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) and (D) only
B. (A), (B) and (C) only
C. (A), (C) and (D) only
D. (B), (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

(A) land classified as private and CPR - correct; (B) state-owned land for community use is CPR - correct; (C) CPRs are vital for landless and marginal farmers - correct. (D) is incorrect because CPR ownership lies with the state/community as a whole, not a private group. Hence (A), (B) and (C) only.

Q32.
Match List-I with List-II List-I (Agricultural Land use Category): (A) Culturable Waste Land (B) Current Fallow (C) Fallow other than Current Fallow (D) Net Sown Area List-II (Characteristics): (I) Land which has been left uncultivated for one or less than one agricultural year. (II) Land which has been left uncultivated for more than five years. (III) Physical extent of land on which crops are sown and harvested. (IV) Land which has been left uncultivated for more than one year but less than five years. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
B. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
C. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
D. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Culturable Waste Land = left uncultivated > 5 years (II); Current Fallow = uncultivated for 1 or less year (I); Fallow other than current = uncultivated more than 1 but less than 5 years (IV); Net Sown Area = physical extent where crops are sown/harvested (III). Matches option A.

Q33.
Which one of the following activities involve the collection, production and dissemination of information or even the production of information?
A. Primary Activity
B. Tertiary Activity
C. Secondary Activity
D. Quaternary Activity
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Quaternary activities are knowledge-based activities involving collection, production and dissemination of information (R&D, data processing). This is the NCERT definition.

Q34.
Which one out of the following is incorrect about Pawan Hans limited?
A. Helicopter service in hilly areas.
B. Helicopter service to petroleum sector.
C. Helicopter service in tourism sector.
D. It is widely used in central India for tourism.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Pawan Hans provides helicopter services to the petroleum sector and in hilly/inaccessible areas and tourism, mainly in the north-eastern states and other difficult terrain - not widely in central India for tourism. Hence (D) is incorrect.

Q35.
Match the followings: List-I (Seaports): (A) Kandla (B) Haldia (C) Marmagao (D) Paradwip List-II (State): (I) Goa (II) Odisha (III) West Bengal (IV) Gujarat Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
B. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
C. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
D. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Kandla-Gujarat (IV); Haldia-West Bengal (III); Marmagao-Goa (I); Paradwip-Odisha (II). Matches option A.

Q36.
In the following identify the correct statements about the Konkan Railway. (A) It was constructed in 1998. (B) It connects Roha in Maharashtra to Mangalore in Karnataka. (C) It is considered an engineering marvel. (D) The states of Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka are partners in it. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B) and (D) only
B. (A), (B) and (C) only
C. (A), (C) and (D) only
D. (B), (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Konkan Railway was constructed in 1998 (A correct), connects Roha (Maharashtra) to Mangalore (Karnataka) (B correct), and is an engineering marvel (C correct). (D) is wrong - the partner states are Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka (not Tamil Nadu). Hence (A), (B) and (C) only.

Q37.
Which of the following is NOT an example of mass communication?
A. Cinema
B. Radio
C. Letters
D. Newspapers
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Mass communication reaches large audiences - cinema, radio, newspapers. Letters are a form of personal communication, not mass communication.

Q38.
Arrange the following commodities in descending order according to their share in India's import (2021-2022)? (A) Petroleum, oil and Lubricants (B) Chemical Products (C) Fertilizers and fertilizer manufacturing (D) Iron and Steel Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B), (C), (D)
B. (A), (C), (D), (B)
C. (C), (A), (D), (B)
D. (C), (B), (D), (A)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Petroleum, oil and lubricants form the largest import share, followed by chemical products, then fertilizers, then iron and steel. Descending: (A), (B), (C), (D) = option A.

Q39.
Which one of the following type of pollution is considered as the World's Top Environmental Health Risk by the World Health Organization?
A. Noise Pollution
B. Water Pollution
C. Air pollution
D. Land Pollution
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The WHO considers air pollution the world's top/single largest environmental health risk.

Q40.
Identify the correct statements about urban waste disposal. (A) The environmental pollution due to solid waste is not very significant in urban areas of India due to low level of urbanisation. (B) Dumping industrial waste into rivers causes water pollution. (C) Solid waste refers to a variety of old and used articles. (D) Solid waste from industrial units is collected and disposed off on low-lying public grounds. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B) and (D) only
B. (A), (B) and (C) only
C. (A), (C) and (D) only
D. (B), (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

(A) is incorrect - solid waste pollution IS very significant in Indian urban areas. (B), (C) and (D) are correct statements about urban waste. Hence (B), (C) and (D) only.

Trade is essentially the buying and selling of items produced elsewhere...
Q41.
The towns and cities where the buying and selling of goods takes place are known as:
A. quasi-urban centres
B. trading centres
C. periodic markets
D. departmental stores
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The passage states: 'The towns and cities where all these works take place are known as trading centres.'

Q42.
Which one of the following are quasi-urban centers and cater to nearby settlements?
A. Urban marketing centres
B. Periodic markets
C. Rural marketing centres
D. Chain stores
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The passage: 'Rural marketing centres cater to nearby settlements. These are quasi-urban centres.'

Q43.
These markets are found where there are no regular markets and organised at different temporal intervals, where people from the surrounding areas meet their temporally accumulated demand.
A. Retail Trading
B. Urban marketing centres
C. Rural marketing centres
D. Periodic markets
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

The passage describes periodic markets: 'found where there are no regular markets... people from the surrounding areas meet their temporally accumulated demand.'

Q44.
Which of the following services is generally NOT a characteristic feature of the urban marketing centres?
A. Consultants
B. Local collection and distribution
C. Veterinary doctors
D. Markets for labour
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Per the passage, urban marketing centres offer specialised services (consultants, veterinary doctors, markets for labour). 'Local collecting and distributing centres' is a feature of rural marketing centres, not urban ones.

Q45.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of rural market centres?
A. They are pure urban centres with specialisation in rural products.
B. They are most rudimentary type of trading centres.
C. Here professional and personal services are not well-developed.
D. Most of these have mandis (wholesale markets).
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The passage says rural marketing centres are 'quasi-urban centres' and 'not urban centres per se.' So 'pure urban centres with specialisation in rural products' is NOT a characteristic. (B), (C), (D) are stated in the passage.

An uneven spatial distribution of the population in India...
Q46.
An uneven spatial distribution of the population in India does not suggest a close relationship between the population and which one of the following?
A. Physical factors
B. Literacy Rate
C. Socio-economic factors
D. Historical factors
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The passage relates population distribution to physical, socio-economic and historical factors. Literacy rate is not mentioned as a factor.

Q47.
Development of irrigation has resulted in moderate to high concentration of population in which of the following state?
A. Rajasthan
B. Jharkhand
C. Himachal Pradesh
D. Sikkim
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The passage states: 'development of irrigation (Rajasthan)' resulted in moderate to high population concentration.

Q48.
Which of the following is NOT a socio-economic or historical factor of the distribution of the population?
A. Evolution of settled agriculture
B. Industrialization and urbanisation
C. Development of transport network
D. Availability of water
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Availability of water is listed as a physical factor in the passage. The others (settled agriculture, industrialisation/urbanisation, transport network) are socio-economic/historical factors.

Q49.
Urban regions of India have a high concentration of the population due to _____.
A. Industrial development and urbanisation
B. Agricultural development
C. Pattern of human settlement
D. Availability of mineral and energy resources
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The passage states urban regions 'have high concentrations of population due to industrial development and urbanisation, drawing large numbers of rural-urban migrants.'

Q50.
Which factor has resulted in a moderate to high concentration of population in areas of the Peninsular States which were previously very thinly populated?
A. Availability of mineral and energy resources
B. Development of irrigation facilities
C. Development of transport network
D. Socio-economic and historical factors
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The passage states: 'development of transport network (Peninsular States)' resulted in moderate to high concentration of population in previously thinly populated areas.

Original question paper source: National Testing Agency (NTA), CUET (UG) 2025. Reproduced for educational use. Answers & explanations by UniDrill.