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CUET 2025 Political Science Question Paper with Answers & Solutions

50 questions with answer key & explanations

Q1.
Which among the following was not a challenge to nationhood in the immediate post-Independent India?
A. To shape an united nation that was accomodative of the diversity in India
B. To restructure its economy through structural adjustment programme
C. To develop democratic practices in accordance with the Constitution
D. To evolve policies that address economic development and eradication of poverty
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The three challenges post-independence were nation-building (unity in diversity), establishing democracy, and ensuring development/equality. Structural adjustment programme came with economic reforms of 1991, not the immediate post-independence period.

Q2.
Which of the following statements are correct about the problems of the Partition of India? (A) There was no single belt of Muslim majority areas in British India. (B) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan of North Eastern Frontier Province opposed the two nation theory. (C) There were areas in Bengal and Punjab provinces in British India where non-Muslims were in majority. (D) Minorities on both sides of the border suffered violence due to Partition. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
B. (A), (B) and (C) only
C. (B), (C) and (D) only
D. (A), (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

(A), (C), (D) are correct per NCERT. (B) is incorrect because Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan was from the North-WESTERN Frontier Province (NWFP), not North Eastern. So (B) is factually wrong; answer is (A),(C),(D) only.

Q3.
Which of the following part of the Indian Constitution is related to the Directive Principles of State Policy?
A. Part III in the Indian Constitution
B. Part IV in the Indian Constitution
C. Part V in the Indian Constitution
D. Part VI in the Indian Constitution
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in Part IV (Articles 36-51) of the Constitution. Part III contains Fundamental Rights.

Q4.
The first general elections was held in India between:
A. 1951-1952
B. 1952-1953
C. 1953-1954
D. 1954-1955
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

India's first general elections were held between October 1951 and February 1952.

Q5.
How many women were not recorded in the first draft of the electoral rolls?
A. 10 lakh
B. 20 lakh
C. 30 lakh
D. 40 lakh
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Per NCERT, about 30 lakh (3 million) women were not recorded by their own names in the first draft of the electoral rolls and were listed only as 'wife of...' or 'daughter of...'; these entries were deleted by the Election Commission.

Q6.
Which political leader did not participate in any of the Independence Day Celebrations on the 15th August, 1947?
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
D. M.K. Gandhi
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Mahatma Gandhi did not participate in the Independence Day celebrations on 15 August 1947; he was in Calcutta trying to restore communal harmony.

Q7.
Which initiative was launched by the government between 1987 and 1991 that involved campaigns for development?
A. Development Outcome Programme
B. Kamraj Plan
C. New Democratic Initiative
D. Socialist pattern of society
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Among the given options, the 'Development Outcome Programme' is presented as the development campaign initiative of that period. The Kamraj Plan (1963) and Socialist pattern of society (1955) are from earlier periods, so they don't fit the 1987-91 window.

Q8.
Operation Flood deals with:
A. Nationwide Milk Grid
B. Flood Management in Bihar
C. Increasing Wheat Production in Punjab and Haryana
D. Investigating flood crisis in lower Assam
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Operation Flood was the White Revolution dairy programme creating a nationwide milk grid, linking milk producers to consumers across the country.

Q9.
Which of the following provision of the Indian Constitution deals with promoting International Peace and Security?
A. Article 51
B. Article 21
C. Article 25
D. Article 44
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Article 51 (a Directive Principle) directs the State to promote international peace and security. Article 21 is right to life, 25 freedom of religion, 44 uniform civil code.

Q10.
Who played an instrumental role for India in world affairs and was responsible for the establishment of contacts between India and other newly independent states in Asia and Africa?
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Indira Gandhi
C. Lal Bahadur Shastri
D. Rajeev Gandhi
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Jawaharlal Nehru, as PM and Foreign Minister, shaped India's foreign policy and built ties with newly independent Asian and African states (Afro-Asian unity, Non-Aligned Movement).

Q11.
With which country India signed a 20 year Treaty of Peace and Friendship in 1971?
A. China
B. Pakistan
C. Soviet Union
D. Bangladesh
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

In August 1971 India signed the 20-year Indo-Soviet Treaty of Peace, Friendship and Cooperation with the Soviet Union.

Q12.
Which of the following statements is/are not true about privy purse? (A) A privy purse was given to the Princely States. (B) It was given as an assurance that after the dissolution of princely rule, the then rulers families would be allowed to retain certain private property and given a grant in heredity or government allowance. (C) At the time of accession, there was little criticism of these privileges since integration and consolidation was the primary aim. (D) Hereditary privileges were consonant with the principles of equality, social and economic justice. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B) and (D) only
B. (B) and (C) only
C. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
D. (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

Statements (A), (B), (C) are true. (D) is NOT true: hereditary privileges were NOT consonant with the principles of equality and social/economic justice (this contradiction was the argument for abolishing privy purses). So only (D) is untrue.

Q13.
Arrange the following events in chronological order: (A) DMK was formed. (B) Indira Gandhi got the Congress Working Committee adopt a Ten Point Programme. (C) K. Kamraj proposed that all Congressmen should resign from office. (D) The fifth general election to Lok Sabha were held. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B), (C),(D)
B. (D), (B),(A), (C)
C. (B), (C), (D), (A)
D. (A), (C), (B), (D)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

DMK formed 1949 (A); Kamaraj Plan 1963 (C); Ten Point Programme 1967 (B); fifth Lok Sabha elections 1971 (D). Order: A, C, B, D.

Q14.
The DMK came to power for the first time in state elections because-
A. It demanded President's rule in Andhra Pradesh
B. It was against frequent floor-crossing of legislators
C. It led an anti-Hindi agitation against the centre
D. It supported the Congress Syndicate to form coalition government in Tamil Nadu
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

DMK came to power in Tamil Nadu in 1967 after leading a massive anti-Hindi imposition agitation against the Centre.

Q15.
When was the Department of Defence Supplies established?
A. 1962
B. 1965
C. 1968
D. 1974
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The Department of Defence Supplies was established in 1965 to promote indigenisation and self-reliance in defence production.

Q16.
Match List-I with List-II List-I: (A) Gujarat Movement (B) Bihar Movement (C) Assam Movement (D) Railway Strike List-II: (I) May 1974 (II) 1979 (III) March 1974 (IV) January 1974 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
B. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
C. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
D. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Gujarat (Nav Nirman) movement began January 1974 (IV); Bihar movement March 1974 (III); Assam anti-foreigner movement 1979 (II); Railway strike May 1974 (I). So A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I = option A.

Q17.
In which of the following movements was the slogan-'Vadakku Vaazhkiradhu;Therkku Thaeikiradhu' (The north thrives even as the south decays)- used?
A. Gujarat movement
B. Anna movement
C. Assam movement
D. Dravidian movement
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

This Tamil slogan ('the north thrives even as the south decays') belongs to the Dravidian movement, which emphasised regional pride and grievances against the north.

Q18.
Who among the following started the Self-Respect Movement in 1925?
A. E.V. Ramasami Naicker
B. Kashiram
C. B R Ambedkar
D. Jyotiba Phule
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The Self-Respect Movement was started by E.V. Ramasami Naicker (Periyar) in the 1920s in Tamil Nadu.

Q19.
Which of the following statements are correct about elections in India? (A) The Congress Party won more seats in the Lok Sabha in 1989 elections than in 1984 elections. (B) The 1991 Lok Sabha elections marked the end of the 'Congress system'. (C) The Lok Sabha elections in 1989 led to the defeat of the Congress party but did not result in a majority for any other party. (D) In 1989 the National Front formed a coalition government at the centre. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
B. (A), (B) and (D) only
C. (B) and (D) only
D. (C) and (D) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

(A) false: Congress won fewer seats in 1989 than its record 1984 win. (B) false: end of Congress system is dated to 1989, not 1991. (C) true: Congress lost in 1989 with no majority for any party. (D) true: National Front coalition formed govt in 1989. So (C) and (D) only.

Q20.
Under which provision of the Indian Constitution, Kashmir was given a special status?
A. Article 324
B. Article 364
C. Article 370
D. Article 375
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Article 370 granted special status to Jammu and Kashmir.

Q21.
In which year did the All Assam Students' Union (AASU) lead an anti-foreigner movement?
A. 1979
B. 1978
C. 1976
D. 1977
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The AASU-led anti-foreigner (Assam) movement began in 1979.

Q22.
Arrange the following events in chronological order: (A) The peasant uprising took place in the Naxalbari police station area of Darjeeling hills district in West Bengal. (B) The opposition political parties led by J.P. Narayan organised a massive demonstration in Delhi's Ramlila grounds demanding the resignation of Indira Gandhi. (C) The Janata Party government appointed Shah Commission of Inquiry. (D) The Supreme Court decided the Keshavananda Bharati case. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A),(B), (C), (D)
B. (B), (C), (A), (D)
C. (A), (D), (B), (C)
D. (C), (B), (D), (A)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Naxalbari uprising 1967 (A); Kesavananda Bharati case 1973 (D); JP's Ramlila demonstration June 1975 (B); Shah Commission appointed 1977 (C). Order: A, D, B, C.

Q23.
The Shah Bano case dealt with-
A. Post-partition rehabilitation of Muslims
B. Maintenance of a Muslim woman from her husband
C. Wakf Board
D. Triple Talaq
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The Shah Bano case (1985) dealt with maintenance for a divorced Muslim woman from her husband under Section 125 CrPC.

Q24.
The fall of the Berlin Wall symbolises which of the following events in International Politics?
A. Disintegration of Germany
B. Unification of Germany
C. Beginning of Cold War
D. Collapse of the Second World
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

The fall of the Berlin Wall in 1989 symbolised the collapse of the Second World (the socialist/communist bloc) and the end of the Cold War. While it led to German unification, the NCERT framing treats it as marking the collapse of the Second World.

Q25.
Arrange the events in chronological order: (A) China occupies Aksai-Chin area (B) Full diplomatic relations was restored between India and China (C) Atal Behari Vajpayee the first top level leader to visit China (D) China's massive invasion Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B), (C), (D)
B. (B), (C), (A), (D)
C. (A), (D), (B), (C)
D. (C), (B), (D), (A)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

China occupied Aksai Chin (late 1950s, A); China's massive invasion 1962 (D); Vajpayee (as External Affairs Minister) visited China 1979 (C); full diplomatic relations restored 1976 (B). NCERT order matches A, D, B, C = option C (B in 1976 precedes Vajpayee's 1979 visit).

Q26.
Arrange the following events related to disintegration of the Soviet Union in chronological order: (A) Boris Yeltsin is appointed as the head of the Communist Party in Moscow. (B) Soviet Union declares that the Warsaw Pact members are free to decide their own future. (C) Boris Yeltsin becomes the President of Russia. (D) The Commonwealth of Independent States is established. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B), (C), (D)
B. (B), (A), (C), (D)
C. (C), (A), (B), (D)
D. (B), (C), (A), (D)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Yeltsin appointed head of Moscow Communist Party 1985 (A); USSR declares Warsaw Pact members free 1989 (B); Yeltsin elected President of Russia June 1991 (C); CIS established December 1991 (D). Order: A, B, C, D.

Q27.
Which country's development into an economic power is known as the "Miracle on the Han River"?
A. Japan
B. China
C. South Korea
D. Indonesia
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

South Korea's rapid economic growth is known as the 'Miracle on the Han River' (named after the river flowing through Seoul).

Q28.
Which Treaty was resisted by Denmark and Sweden as an Euro-skeptic response to European Union's integrationist agenda?
A. Bangkok Declaration
B. Maastritcht Treaty
C. Strategic Arms LimitationsTreaty
D. Warsaw Pact
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The Maastricht Treaty (1992), which established the European Union and the euro, faced Euro-skeptic resistance from Denmark and Sweden.

Q29.
In which of the following year did India and Pakistan sign the Shimla Agreement?
A. July 1966
B. July 1972
C. July 1976
D. July 1987
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The Shimla Agreement was signed in July 1972 between Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto after the 1971 war.

Q30.
In which year did India and Bangladesh sign the Farakka Treaty for sharing of the Ganga water?
A. 1985
B. 1988
C. 1991
D. 1996
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

The Ganges Water Sharing (Farakka) Treaty between India and Bangladesh was signed in 1996.

Q31.
The olive branches in the emblem of the United Nations' logo signifies:
A. Security
B. Reform
C. World peace
D. Human rights
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The olive branches in the UN emblem are a symbol of peace, representing the UN's goal of world peace.

Q32.
The WTO was set up in 1995 as the successor to which of the following organization?
A. General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs (GATT)
B. League of Nations
C. United Nations
D. Amnesty International
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The WTO (1995) succeeded the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).

Q33.
Match List-I with List-II List-I: (A) Brundtland Report (B) Antarctic Treaty (C) Antarctic Environmental Protocol (D) Earth summit in Rio de Janeiro List-II: (I) 1992 (II) 1991 (III) 1959 (IV) 1987 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
B. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
C. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
D. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Brundtland Report 1987 (IV); Antarctic Treaty 1959 (III); Antarctic Environmental Protocol 1991 (II); Earth Summit Rio 1992 (I). So A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I = option A.

Q34.
The Vajpayee-Musharraf Summit in 2001 was held in-
A. Agra
B. Lahore
C. Delhi
D. Islamabad
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The 2001 Vajpayee-Musharraf summit was held in Agra (the Agra Summit).

Q35.
Match List-I with List-II List-I: (A) Anti-ballistic Missile Treaty (B) Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (C) Chemical Weapons Convention Treaty (D) India first tested a nuclear device List-II: (I) 1968 (II) 1974 (III) 1972 (IV) 1992 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
B. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
C. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
D. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

ABM Treaty 1972 (III); NPT 1968 (I); Chemical Weapons Convention 1992 (IV); India first nuclear test 1974 (II). So A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II = option C.

Q36.
Limits to Growth focuses on which of the following Environmental Concerns?
A. Depletion of the Earth's resources
B. Depletion of Ozone Layer
C. Coastal Pollution
D. Water Pollution
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The Club of Rome's 'Limits to Growth' (1972) warned about the depletion of the Earth's finite natural resources due to growing population and consumption.

Q37.
Which of the following regions are subject to special regional rules of Environmental Protection?
A. Argentina
B. Australia
C. France
D. The Antarctic and the Arctic polar regions
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

The Antarctic and Arctic polar regions are subject to special regional environmental protection rules due to their fragile ecosystems.

Q38.
Which one of the following international institutions plays an important role in determining economic policies across the world?
A. IMF
B. IAEA
C. Amnesty International
D. Human Rights Watch
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) plays an important role in shaping economic policies worldwide. IAEA deals with atomic energy; the others are human-rights NGOs.

Q39.
Which among the following statements are correct about the impact of Globalisation? (A) Globalisation results in erosion of state capacity. (B) It means erosion in the ability of the government to do what they do. (C) All over the world, the old 'welfare state' is now giving way to a more minimalist state that performs certain core functions. (D) In place of the welfare state, it is the market that becomes the prime determinant of economic and social priorities. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
B. (C), (B) and (D) only
C. (A), (D) and (C) only
D. (B), (D) and (A) only
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

All four statements are correct descriptions of globalisation's impact on state capacity per NCERT: erosion of state capacity, reduced government ability, shift to minimalist state, and market becoming prime determinant.

Q40.
'McDonaldisation' is the result of which one of the following?
A. Political consequence of globalisation
B. Economic consequence of globalisation
C. Cultural consequence of globalisation
D. Resistance to globalisation
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

McDonaldisation is cited as a cultural consequence of globalisation, reflecting cultural homogenisation worldwide.

Answer the following questions based on the given image:
Q41.
In which year Nepal became a democratic republic after abolishing monarchy?
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. 2004
B. 2015
C. 2008
D. 2010
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Nepal abolished its monarchy and became a federal democratic republic in 2008.

Q42.
Which among the following statements is not correct about the nature of state and society in Nepal?
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. Nepal was a Buddhist Kingdom in the past.
B. The king retained full control over the government with the help of the army.
C. The Maoists of Nepal were successful in spreading their influence in Nepal
D. There was a triangular conflict among the monarchist forces, the democrats and the Maoists in Nepal
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

Statement (A) is not correct: Nepal was a Hindu Kingdom in the past, not a Buddhist Kingdom. The other statements are accurate per NCERT.

Q43.
In which year the King of Nepal accepted the demand for New Democratic Constitution?
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. 1999
B. 1990
C. 1992
D. 1993
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

In 1990 the King of Nepal accepted the demand for a new democratic constitution under the first pro-democracy movement.

Q44.
What is the name of the famous activist in the above picture?
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. Nahar Thapa
B. Durga Thapa
C. Renuka Kani
D. Tima Koni
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The NCERT image of the Nepal pro-democracy movement identifies the woman activist as Durga Thapa.

Q45.
The non-violent movement to restore democracy in Nepal was led by-
[Figure in original paper — see source PDF]
A. Socialist Democratic Alliance
B. Pro-Democracy Initiative
C. All Nepal Democratic Party
D. Seven Party Alliance
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

The 2006 pro-democracy movement in Nepal was led by the Seven Party Alliance (SPA).

Sri Lanka has retained democracy since its independence in 1948. But it faced a serious challenge, not from the military or monarchy, but rather from ethnic conflict leading to the demand for secession by one of the regions. After its independence, politics in Sri Lanka (it was then known as Ceylon) was dominated by forces that represented the interests of the majority Sinhala community. They were hostile to a large number of Tamils who had migrated from India to Sri Lanka and settled there. This migration continued even after independence. The Sinhala nationalists thought that Sri Lanka should not give 'concessions' to the Tamils because Sri Lanka belongs to the Sinhala people only. The neglect of Tamil concerns led to militant Tamil nationalism. From 1983 onward, the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) was fighting an armed struggle with the army of Sri Lanka in pursuit of their demand for a "Tamil Elam" or separate country for the Tamilians of Sri Lanka. At one point in time, the northeastern part of Sri Lanka was controlled by the LTTE. The government of India has from time to time tried to negotiate with the Sri Lankan government on the Tamil question. But in 1987, the government of India for the first time got directly involved in the Sri Lankan Tamil question. India signed an accord with Sri Lanka and sent troops to stabilize relations between the Sri Lankan government and the Tamils. Eventually, the Indian Army got into a fight with the LTTE. The presence of Indian troops was also not liked much by the Sri Lankans. They saw this as an attempt by India to interfere in the internal affairs of Sri Lanka. In 1989, the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) pulled out of Sri Lanka without attaining its objective.
Q46.
Which of the following community was in the minority in Sri Lanka?
A. Sinhala
B. Tamils
C. Indigenous
D. Rohingyas
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The passage states the Sinhala community was the majority; the Tamils were the minority.

Q47.
What was the earlier name of Sri Lanka?
A. Rangoon
B. Ceylon
C. Shatagu
D. Shahbajgadhi
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The passage states Sri Lanka 'was then known as Ceylon'.

Q48.
What was the demand of Tamilians to Sri Lanka's government?
A. Right to Vote
B. Right to contest in general elections
C. "Tamil Eelam" or a separate country for the Tamilians.
D. Establishment of Democracy
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

The passage states the LTTE demanded a 'Tamil Eelam' or separate country for the Tamilians of Sri Lanka.

Q49.
Choose the correct answers from the statements given below- (A) India signed an accord with Sri Lanka and sent troops to stabilize relations between the Sri Lankan government and the Tamils. (B) In 1989, the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) pulled out of Sri Lanka without attaining its objective. (C) The LTTE was vanquished in 2009. (D) Sri Lanka has retained democracy since its independence in 1947
A. Only (A) and (B) are correct.
B. Only (A), (B) and (C) are correct.
C. Only (A), (B) and (D) are correct.
D. Only (A), (C) and (D) are correct.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

(A) and (B) are stated in the passage; (C) the LTTE was defeated in 2009 (correct); (D) is wrong because Sri Lanka's independence was 1948, not 1947. So (A), (B), (C) only.

Q50.
In which year IPKF (Indian peace keeping force ) was pulled out from Sri-Lanka?
A. 1987
B. 1989
C. 1985
D. 1984
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The passage states that in 1989 the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) pulled out of Sri Lanka.

Original question paper source: National Testing Agency (NTA), CUET (UG) 2025. Reproduced for educational use. Answers & explanations by UniDrill.